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WAS THE LAW FULFILLED OR ABOLISHED?

I love the 10 Commandments.

I commissioned a famous calligraphy artist to do the 10 Commandments and have it framed in my prayer closet.

I quote the 10 Commandments quietly throughout the day, and meditate on them.

Please don’t think I’m against the 10 Commandments.


Is not committing homosexuality or sodomy or drunkenness or fornication or extortion or heresy or contentions or sorcery or wrath or revelries or blaspheming the Holy Spirit... mentioned in the 10 Commandments?


There are many more commandments than 10.



I try to say what scripture says so as to keep the arguing to a minimum.



JLB
I know you love the 10 commandments.
It would be wonderful to see a pix of that framed work of art.
It must be beautiful.

I said in a previous post just before this one that there are more than 10 commandments because what Jesus taught in Matthew 5:3-9 is not within the 10 and yet this is how He teaches us to live/be. So, yes, there are more than 10.

I agree with you wholeheartedly.

OTOH,,,I don't know how to keep my knowledge restricted to what is in the bible -- or the language of the bible, I should say. I've learned a lot during the years and I use the language of how I learned.

I don't know how this could cause disagreement....if someone explains something to me,,,,,even if they're using different wording....eventually we should be able to understand each other.

The problem here, as I see it, is in the word FULFILLED...which is why I started this thread to begin with.

The problem here is that some of us understand the different categories of the Law of Moses and some refuse to accept that different categories exist.

So we hear that ALL of the Law of Moses was abolished.
The fact is that the Moral Law was not abolished, existed before Moses, and will exist till the end of time.

This seems to be the bone of contention....
some believe it has been abolished...
others believe it has not.

How to come to an agreement?
However, I have stopped trying to convince anyone of this.
(I think I have anyway...not sure!)
 
How to come to an agreement?

Read and believe the scriptures.


I will say it again.

The “moral law” as you call it, was already a part of the Abrahamic Covenant, before the law was added, (temporarily).

The “moral law” did not originate with the law of Moses.


The feast days, Sabbath ordinances, animal sacrifices, ceremonial washings, Levitical priesthood and so forth, originated with the law of Moses, so when the law was nailed to the cross and taken out of the way being obsolete, every thing that was added to the Abrahamic Covenant was abolished.

The “moral law” that was already a part of the Abrahamic Covenant when the law of Moses was added, remained in tact when the law of Moses was abolished in His flesh.



JLB
 
Anyone today that says the 10 commandments are binding and should be obeyed is going back to the OT law. Again, under the OT law of Moses justification required flawless obedience to ALL of that law. Therefore keeping the 10 commandments cannot justify.
What exactly does obeying the 10 commandments go back to the O.T. law?

These commandments, and more, are found in the teachings of Jesus in the New Testament, and also in the teachings of Paul...who wrote after Jesus' ascension, showing that they are still in effect even in the New Covenant.

In Matthew 22:37-39 Jesus declares to us the Law of Love, which, when followed, fulfills all the commandments Jesus left us with..which are more than the 10.
37And He said to him, “ ‘YOU SHALL LOVE THE LORD YOUR GOD WITH ALL YOUR HEART, AND WITH ALL YOUR SOUL, AND WITH ALL YOUR MIND.’
38“This is the great and foremost commandment.
39“The second is like it, ‘YOU SHALL LOVE YOUR NEIGHBOR AS YOURSELF.’


Jesus said the above will fulfill all the law...
40“On these two commandments depend the whole Law and the Prophets.”


And as I've posted before,,,,Paul also refers many times to the commandments:
Romans 13:8-9
8Owe nothing to anyone except to love one another; for he who loves his neighbor has fulfilled the law.
9For this, “YOU SHALL NOT COMMIT ADULTERY, YOU SHALL NOT MURDER, YOU SHALL NOT STEAL, YOU SHALL NOT COVET,” and if there is any other commandment, it is summed up in this saying, “YOU SHALL LOVE YOUR NEIGHBOR AS YOURSELF.”
10Love does no wrong to a neighbor; therefore love is the fulfillment of the law.


Paul goes beyond the commandments in verse 13-14, Romans 13
13Let us behave properly as in the day, not in carousing and drunkenness, not in sexual promiscuity and sensuality, not in strife and jealousy.
14But put on the Lord Jesus Christ, and make no provision for the flesh in regard to its lusts.


Please use scripture to show when or how the commandments were abolished and are no longer in effect.
 
The OT law and those sacrifices could not justify. Only flawless keeping of that OT law would justify and none could keep it perfectly, other than Christ. Therefore faith played no part of the OT and justification of man.
Are you saying no one in the O.T. was saved?
If not and you're right,,,does this mean that those that WERE saved, obeyed every single law perfectly as you state was necessary?

So Abraham and all the persons named in Hebrews 11 were not saved and they did not have faith? Or do you believe they kept the law perfectly --- as is your claim to O.T. salvation.


But back under the OT law of Moses when it was still in effect, those Jews did not have the shed blood of Christ simply because it had not yet been shed. All they had was the blood of bulls and goats that could not take away sin and justify. If the blood of bulls and goats could justify then no reason for Christ to shed His blood nor any need for the NT.
If O.T. persons were sanctified....then by necessity they were also justified.

And, as I've stated before,,,,ALL MEN, have been saved by Jesus' blood.
Time does not exist in heaven.
Jesus freed those awaiting his resurrection in Abraham's Bossom (Luke 16), but they were saved by faith by the blood of Jesus...just like we are today. It is the Holy Spirit that was different in the O.T.

There has always been a reason for Jesus to die for our sins...even IF the blood of animals forgave sin. Do you know the atonement theories? Jesus had MANY reasons to die for us.
One of them is to free us from satan's grip.



The reason they sinned was because no one, other than Christ, is perfectly sinless. There is no indwelling of the Holy Spirit that will keep a man from sinning thereby be perfectly sinless...as Paul declared 'all have sinned'. The Apostles had a miraculous indwelling of the Holy Ghost but still sinned.
Agreed.
You're repeating what I said.




There was condemnation under the OT law for all it did was condemn when a person committed one sin, it showed no mercy, no forgiveness. But it is not like this under the NT for Christians are those who are in Christ clothed in Christ's perfect righteousness therefore seen as perfect by God through Christ. Again, they did not have this under the OT law. As long as the Christian walks in the light, then Christ's blood washes away all sins leaving the Christi spotless, blamess, with wrinkle...perfect before God (2 Peter 3:14; Ephesians 5:27). Again, this s something they did not have under the OT law of Moses.
Agreed.
Of course I could ask what it means to walk in the light.
Jesus is the light of men.
To walk in the light means to walk with Him.
If we walk with Him we also obey His commands.



Romans 8:3 " For what the law could not do,..."

Paul speaks of what that OT law could not do, as I mentioned above the things it could not do, it could not take away sin, could not forgive, could not bring a person to "no condemnation" as the NT can.

Why could the OT law not bring one "no condemnation"? ".... in that it was weak through the flesh ...". The OT required flawless law keeping to not be condemned but human flesh is too weak to keep it perfectly. Nothing was wrong with the OT law God gave it was only weak pertaining to man's flesh. This was the 'fault" God saw with the OT (Hebrews 8:7-8). Had 'flesh' been able to keep the OT covenant perfectly, then no need for a second covenant (NT).
The New Covenant is not the second covenant.

Please explain how the O.T. laws required perfect law keeping if the sacrificial system was in effect. Animals were sacrificed and sins were forgiven.
NO ONE has ever kept the law perfectly....
The Law was given for different reasons, one being to show man what sin is.
Where there is no law, there is no sin.

Romans 5:12-14
12Therefore, just as through one man sin entered into the world, and death through sin, and so death spread to all men, because all sinned—
13for until the Law sin was in the world, but sin is not imputed when there is no law. 14Nevertheless death reigned from Adam until Moses, even over those who had not sinned in the likeness of the offense of Adam, who is a type of Him who was to come.


" ...God sending his own Son in the likeness of sinful flesh, and for sin, condemned sin in the flesh: " What the OT law could not do God did by sending Christ to die for man's sins, shed His blood making Christ a propitiation for man's sins. Man's sins could then all be washed away by the blood of Christ, God remembers those sins no more leaving a man totally justified before God.

Romans 8:4 " That the righteousness of the law might be fulfilled in us, who walk not after the flesh, but after the Spirit. "
Again, that OT law required strict, flawless law keeping, required fulfilling ALL those laws perfectly which the Jew could not do. Yet this flawless law keeping the OT law required was fulfilled in Christ in that Christ did keep it perfectly. So being "in Christ" and faithfully remaining in Christ the Christian is seen by God as being as sinless as Christ.
Romans 8:4 states, as you've posted, that we are not to walk after the flesh but after the spirit.
Walking after the spirit is something we do to please God.

Please explain about keeping the law perfectly in the O.T. if sacrificing animals forgave sins.

Those who are in Christ are those who walk not after the flesh (Romans 6:2 the Christian is one who dead to sin) but after the Spirit. To walk after the Spirit means one obeys the Spirit's word, the Bible, and live life according to that word.

Paul is writing this to Christians, those who walk after the Spirit and as long as they continue to obey the Spirit's word they will continue to have Christ's blood wash away all their sins leaving them without spot and blame before God.
Agreed.
What is the Spirit's word?
 
This is just my personal opinion . . .

The Jewish people obeyed the law of Moses and the rest of the Old Testament [the Ten Commandments]. Christ did not come to abolish the law but to clarify it and prioritize it.

Henry Drummond, in his book, The Greatest Thing in the World, said if you fulfill the commandment of Jesus to love one another then you do not need the Ten Commandments. You will just naturally do what they command out of love.

In one of my articles I talk about how Christ broke the law a couple of times out of love. That always made him special to me even before I became a Christian.

I believe in civil obedience as discussed in the book, Walden's Pond. So I believe that laws must sometimes be revised not abolished.

When you decide to follow in Christ's footsteps and fulfill the law, make sure it is a just law, and when in doubt to the loving thing.

The laws of the Old Testament and the New Testament do not contradict each other. The old laws must just be practiced with love in mind.

Jesus said many things. But what got my attention, even as a child, was his message of love. As Rodney King put it, "Can we all get along."
 
Read and believe the scriptures.


I will say it again.

The “moral law” as you call it, was already a part of the Abrahamic Covenant, before the law was added, (temporarily).

The “moral law” did not originate with the law of Moses.


The feast days, Sabbath ordinances, animal sacrifices, ceremonial washings, Levitical priesthood and so forth, originated with the law of Moses, so when the law was nailed to the cross and taken out of the way being obsolete, every thing that was added to the Abrahamic Covenant was abolished.

The “moral law” that was already a part of the Abrahamic Covenant when the law of Moses was added, remained in tact when the law of Moses was abolished in His flesh.



JLB
I agree and have stated this many times on many threads.
I don't understand what difference it makes WHEN God's commandments were given.

We are expected to obey them.

In your last sentence you say the law remained in tact.
You're beginning to confuse me.
 
This is just my personal opinion . . .

The Jewish people obeyed the law of Moses and the rest of the Old Testament [the Ten Commandments]. Christ did not come to abolish the law but to clarify it and prioritize it.

Henry Drummond, in his book, The Greatest Thing in the World, said if you fulfill the commandment of Jesus to love one another then you do not need the Ten Commandments. You will just naturally do what they command out of love.

In one of my articles I talk about how Christ broke the law a couple of times out of love. That always made him special to me even before I became a Christian.

I believe in civil obedience as discussed in the book, Walden's Pond. So I believe that laws must sometimes be revised not abolished.

When you decide to follow in Christ's footsteps and fulfill the law, make sure it is a just law, and when in doubt to the loving thing.

The laws of the Old Testament and the New Testament do not contradict each other. The old laws must just be practiced with love in mind.

Jesus said many things. But what got my attention, even as a child, was his message of love. As Rodney King put it, "Can we all get along."
Well said.
Thanks for posting.
 
Read and believe the scriptures.


I will say it again.

The “moral law” as you call it, was already a part of the Abrahamic Covenant, before the law was added, (temporarily).

The “moral law” did not originate with the law of Moses.


The feast days, Sabbath ordinances, animal sacrifices, ceremonial washings, Levitical priesthood and so forth, originated with the law of Moses, so when the law was nailed to the cross and taken out of the way being obsolete, every thing that was added to the Abrahamic Covenant was abolished.

The “moral law” that was already a part of the Abrahamic Covenant when the law of Moses was added, remained in tact when the law of Moses was abolished in His flesh.



JLB
It's not me that calls it the Moral Law.



 
What exactly does obeying the 10 commandments go back to the O.T. law?

These commandments, and more, are found in the teachings of Jesus in the New Testament, and also in the teachings of Paul...who wrote after Jesus' ascension, showing that they are still in effect even in the New Covenant.

In Matthew 22:37-39 Jesus declares to us the Law of Love, which, when followed, fulfills all the commandments Jesus left us with..which are more than the 10.
37And He said to him, “ ‘YOU SHALL LOVE THE LORD YOUR GOD WITH ALL YOUR HEART, AND WITH ALL YOUR SOUL, AND WITH ALL YOUR MIND.’
38“This is the great and foremost commandment.
39“The second is like it, ‘YOU SHALL LOVE YOUR NEIGHBOR AS YOURSELF.’


Jesus said the above will fulfill all the law...
40“On these two commandments depend the whole Law and the Prophets.”


And as I've posted before,,,,Paul also refers many times to the commandments:
Romans 13:8-9
8Owe nothing to anyone except to love one another; for he who loves his neighbor has fulfilled the law.
9For this, “YOU SHALL NOT COMMIT ADULTERY, YOU SHALL NOT MURDER, YOU SHALL NOT STEAL, YOU SHALL NOT COVET,” and if there is any other commandment, it is summed up in this saying, “YOU SHALL LOVE YOUR NEIGHBOR AS YOURSELF.”
10Love does no wrong to a neighbor; therefore love is the fulfillment of the law.


Paul goes beyond the commandments in verse 13-14, Romans 13
13Let us behave properly as in the day, not in carousing and drunkenness, not in sexual promiscuity and sensuality, not in strife and jealousy.
14But put on the Lord Jesus Christ, and make no provision for the flesh in regard to its lusts.



Please use scripture to show when or how the commandments were abolished and are no longer in effect.
Yes, Jesus repeated (and enhanced some) 9 of the 10 commandments. Jesus replaced the 10 commandments with His NT laws that did not include Sabbath keeping. CHristians therefore are to follow Christ's NT law and not follow Moses. Again, trying to keep both laws at the same time is what spiritual adultery, Romans 7:1-5

Again, Jesus took the OT out of the way not by destroying it but took it out the way by fulfilling it. Fulfill means to complete, to bring to an end.
 
Are you saying no one in the O.T. was saved?
If not and you're right,,,does this mean that those that WERE saved, obeyed every single law perfectly as you state was necessary?.


So Abraham and all the persons named in Hebrews 11 were not saved and they did not have faith? Or do you believe they kept the law perfectly --- as is your claim to O.T. salvation.

I said the OT law could not justify for it required flawless law keeping, thereby by the law no man is justified in the sight of God Galatians 3:11. Therefore keeping the 10 commandments will not justify anyone.

Yet God justified men who had a faithful obedience to Him even though they did not keep the OT law perfectly. God justified Abraham for he had a faithful obedience, not a perfect obedience. Unlike the OT law, all God ever required of man for man to be justified was a faithful obedience. not flawless perfection.

So those OT characters were NOT saved by flawless law keeping but saved by an obedient faith to God and would have all their sins cleansed away by the blood of Christ in the future when He did go to the cross.


wondering said:
If O.T. persons were sanctified....then by necessity they were also justified.

But HOW were they justified? By flawless keeping of all the OT law? No! By a faithful obedience to God? Yes!

wondering said:
And, as I've stated before,,,,ALL MEN, have been saved by Jesus' blood.
Time does not exist in heaven.
Jesus freed those awaiting his resurrection in Abraham's Bossom (Luke 16), but they were saved by faith by the blood of Jesus...just like we are today. It is the Holy Spirit that was different in the O.T.

There has always been a reason for Jesus to die for our sins...even IF the blood of animals forgave sin. Do you know the atonement theories? Jesus had MANY reasons to die for us.
One of them is to free us from satan's grip.

Again. 1000's of years ago under the OT they did not have the shed blood of Christ to remit their sins. Hebrews 9:22 says without the shedding of blood there is no remission. Without the blood of Christ, only having the blood of animals they had no way under the OT law to have all their sins washed away.

The OT law required flawless obedience to all the law to be justified which none could keep it perfect but Christ.

So without the blood of Christ and unable to keep the law perfectly how were they justified under the OT? By an obedient faith. When Christ finally did come to earth and die and shed His blood, His blood flowed back to wash away all the sins of those faithfully obedient OT characters.



wondering said:
Agreed.
You're repeating what I said.





Agreed.
Of course I could ask what it means to walk in the light.
Jesus is the light of men.
To walk in the light means to walk with Him.
If we walk with Him we also obey His commands.

Yes, walking in the light means keeping Christ's commands/doctrines.





wondering said:
The New Covenant is not the second covenant.

Yes it is.

wondering said:
Please explain how the O.T. laws required perfect law keeping if the sacrificial system was in effect. Animals were sacrificed and sins were forgiven.
NO ONE has ever kept the law perfectly....
The Law was given for different reasons, one being to show man what sin is.
Where there is no law, there is no sin.

Again, all they had under the OT law was the blood of bulls and goats that could NOT take away sin Hebrews 10:4. The blood of animals did not completely remove their sins leaving them totally justified before God for their was a remembrance of their sins every year Hebrews 10:3. If the blood of bulls and goats could completely take away all sin leaving them totally justified before God, then there would be no need for Christ to shed His blood and no need for the NT. As the Hebrew writer says, if those animal sacrifices could make the comer perfect then they would not have ceased to be offered. Yet they could NOT make them under the OT law perfect, could not wash away all their sins.

Yet under the NT law we have the blood of Christ that does wash away all sins and GOd remembers those sins no more making the Christian perfect before God.

wondering said:
Romans 5:12-14
12Therefore, just as through one man sin entered into the world, and death through sin, and so death spread to all men, because all sinned—
13for until the Law sin was in the world, but sin is not imputed when there is no law. 14Nevertheless death reigned from Adam until Moses, even over those who had not sinned in the likeness of the offense of Adam, who is a type of Him who was to come.



Romans 8:4 states, as you've posted, that we are not to walk after the flesh but after the spirit.
Walking after the spirit is something we do to please God.

Please explain about keeping the law perfectly in the O.T. if sacrificing animals forgave sins.


Agreed.
What is the Spirit's word?

No, Hebrews 10:1-4 is very clear that those OT animal sacrifices could not take away sin..." For it is not possible that the blood of bulls and of goats should take away sins. "
Hebrews 10:4.
 
It's not me that calls it the Moral Law.

Do you know what I mean when I say the ”moral law” did not originate with Moses?


This is the very reason why I don’t use unbiblical terms, because we just end up talking in circles about a term not found in the Bible.


Rather than addressing the content of my post, you are still talking about where the term came from.


I put it in italics to show it’s a quote from someone else, and adopted for the purpose of having a common understanding in our discussion.


In the United States we have the Constitution and the bill of rights.


These do not change from administration to administration although some Presidents may implement new policies, their new policies, once ratified and not supposed to violate the Constitution.


These new policies may be repealed and replaced or adopted by the next administration but what doesn’t change is the Constitution (although some progressive politicians would like to change it).


Obama Care is an example.

DACA is another.


I use this analogy to illustrate the point I’m trying to make with the law of Moses.


The “moral law” is like the Constitution.

The law of Moses was “added because of transgressions, until the Seed should come”, and like Ernest T. Bass said, He fulfilled it.


What purpose then does the law serve? It was added because of transgressions, till the Seed should come to whom the promise was made; and it was appointed through angels by the hand of a mediator. Galatians 3:19


By saying “until”, the Holy Spirit is indicating the law of Moses was temporary.


And this I say, that the law, which was four hundred and thirty years later, cannot annul the covenant that was confirmed before by God in Christ, that it should make the promise of no effect. Galatians 3:17



JLB
 
....we hear that ALL of the Law of Moses was abolished.
The fact is that the Moral Law was not abolished, existed before Moses, and will exist till the end of time.

This seems to be the bone of contention....
some believe it has been abolished...
others believe it has not.

How to come to an agreement?
With all respect, I think the problem is that you do not appear to accept the following logic, which I suggest is airtight: The fact that a certain moral principle - like not committing adultery - happens to be commandment number 37 (or whatever) of the 613 elements of the Law of Moses does not mean that abolition of the Law of Moses (all of it!) entails dispensing with the moral principle enshrined in commandment number 37.

And Paul is pretty clear - the Law of Moses is no longer in force.

We all agree we should not commit adultery
 
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Reactions: JLB
Yes, Jesus repeated (and enhanced some) 9 of the 10 commandments. Jesus replaced the 10 commandments with His NT laws that did not include Sabbath keeping. CHristians therefore are to follow Christ's NT law and not follow Moses. Again, trying to keep both laws at the same time is what spiritual adultery, Romans 7:1-5

Again, Jesus took the OT out of the way not by destroying it but took it out the way by fulfilling it. Fulfill means to complete, to bring to an end.
I agree except that Jesus do not replace the 10 commandments, but added to them.
If you mean that He replaced them with the Two Great Commandments,,,then I could agree.
 
I said the OT law could not justify for it required flawless law keeping, thereby by the law no man is justified in the sight of God Galatians 3:11. Therefore keeping the 10 commandments will not justify anyone.
Galatians 3:11 states excatly what I've been saying but which is not being understood.
I've said several times that we are saved by FAITH and not by WORKS....The O.T. Law is works now that Jesus has died for our sins...this is the better way.

This is repeated in Galatians 3:6
God proclaimed Abraham just due to his faith in God. The real children of Abraham are those that believe/trust in God.

Galatians 3:8
the scriptures foresaw that God would justify the Gentiles by faith.

Yet God justified men who had a faithful obedience to Him even though they did not keep the OT law perfectly. God justified Abraham for he had a faithful obedience, not a perfect obedience. Unlike the OT law, all God ever required of man for man to be justified was a faithful obedience. not flawless perfection.
Amen!


So those OT characters were NOT saved by flawless law keeping but saved by an obedient faith to God and would have all their sins cleansed away by the blood of Christ in the future when He did go to the cross.
Amen again.




But HOW were they justified? By flawless keeping of all the OT law? No! By a faithful obedience to God? Yes!
Right....
Romans 1:5



Again. 1000's of years ago under the OT they did not have the shed blood of Christ to remit their sins. Hebrews 9:22 says without the shedding of blood there is no remission. Without the blood of Christ, only having the blood of animals they had no way under the OT law to have all their sins washed away.

The OT law required flawless obedience to all the law to be justified which none could keep it perfect but Christ.

So without the blood of Christ and unable to keep the law perfectly how were they justified under the OT? By an obedient faith. When Christ finally did come to earth and die and shed His blood, His blood flowed back to wash away all the sins of those faithfully obedient OT characters.
:thumbsup




Yes, walking in the light means keeping Christ's commands/doctrines.
Agreed.

Yes it is.
Ooops. We were on a roll there!
If the New Covenant is the second covenant,,,that would mean there are only two.
There are at least 8 that I can think of just off-hand.
But I'd rather get back to our agreeing....



Again, all they had under the OT law was the blood of bulls and goats that could NOT take away sin Hebrews 10:4. The blood of animals did not completely remove their sins leaving them totally justified before God for their was a remembrance of their sins every year Hebrews 10:3. If the blood of bulls and goats could completely take away all sin leaving them totally justified before God, then there would be no need for Christ to shed His blood and no need for the NT. As the Hebrew writer says, if those animal sacrifices could make the comer perfect then they would not have ceased to be offered. Yet they could NOT make them under the OT law perfect, could not wash away all their sins.
Just two comments:
For someone to go to be with God....he must be justified. So persons in the O.T. were justified.
Also, the blood of bulls and goats did take away sins...otherwise why make the sacrifice?
Hebrews is saying that we now have a better and permanent way.
Hebrews 2:17
Hebrews 9:12

Yet under the NT law we have the blood of Christ that does wash away all sins and GOd remembers those sins no more making the Christian perfect before God.
Agreed.



No, Hebrews 10:1-4 is very clear that those OT animal sacrifices could not take away sin..." For it is not possible that the blood of bulls and of goats should take away sins. "
Hebrews 10:4.
The above is not what Hebrews 10:1-4 is saying.
Please read it again, Hebrews 10:1-10 and explain why sacrifices were offered if they did not take away sin and why we need Jesus.
Thanks.
 
With all respect, I think the problem is that you do not appear to accept the following logic, which I suggest is airtight: The fact that a certain moral principle - like not committing adultery - happens to be commandment number 37 (or whatever) of the 613 elements of the Law of Moses does not mean that abolition of the Law of Moses (all of it!) entails dispensing with the moral principle enshrined in commandment number 37.

And Paul is pretty clear - the Law of Moses is no longer in force.

We all agree we should not commit adultery
No Drew...this is not the problem.
Not committing adultery is not no. 37 of the 613 elements of the Law of Moses.
It is no. 7 of the 10 commandments which God spoke to the Israelites in the Sinai desert.

The 10 commandments were included in the Law of Moses
AND
in the new covenant.

What YOU are saying is that ALL OF THE LAW OF MOSES has been abolished.

What I AM saying is that the Moral Law (contained in the Law of Moses) had NOT been abolished.

We will have to agree to disagree.

The point at which we can agree is that we both believe we are not to break any of these commandments which are also found in the N.T. and which Jesus narrowed down to 2, but also added some more.
 
Do you know what I mean when I say the ”moral law” did not originate with Moses?
I've answered this more than once.
I will again.
The NATURAL LAW has been in existence from the beginning of time.
God is a moral being and expects His creation to be moral in nature.

The Noahic Law has also been mentioned here many times by another member.
These laws were BEFORE the Mosaic Covenant.
The Moral Law has ALWAYS existed and will always exist...
It will exist in heaven even.


This is the very reason why I don’t use unbiblical terms, because we just end up talking in circles about a term not found in the Bible.
I'm not talking in circles.
I believe the Moral Law will always be in effect.
Others believe it has been abolished with the coming of Christ.
I showed from scripture how Jesus and Paul spoke about being moral in our behavior,,,but did not speak about keeping practices that had to do with diets, circumcision, sacrifices, etc.


Rather than addressing the content of my post, you are still talking about where the term came from.
YOU said I made up the term...
I make up no terms....I'm not a theologian.
I showed you, from links, that I DID NOT make up that term.
It's necessary to use that term when teaching about the old and new covenants....
Probably, many terms are needed to explain biblical concepts that are NOT in the bible, but which do represent a truth taught in scripture.


I put it in italics to show it’s a quote from someone else, and adopted for the purpose of having a common understanding in our discussion.


In the United States we have the Constitution and the bill of rights.


These do not change from administration to administration although some Presidents may implement new policies, their new policies, once ratified and not supposed to violate the Constitution.


These new policies may be repealed and replaced or adopted by the next administration but what doesn’t change is the Constitution (although some progressive politicians would like to change it).


Obama Care is an example.

DACA is another.


I use this analogy to illustrate the point I’m trying to make with the law of Moses.


The “moral law” is like the Constitution.

The law of Moses was “added because of transgressions, until the Seed should come”, and like Ernest T. Bass said, He fulfilled it.
The seed has come.
So the Moral Law has been abolished?
The Moral Law is the 10 commandments.


What purpose then does the law serve? It was added because of transgressions, till the Seed should come to whom the promise was made; and it was appointed through angels by the hand of a mediator. Galatians 3:19


By saying “until”, the Holy Spirit is indicating the law of Moses was temporary.


And this I say, that the law, which was four hundred and thirty years later, cannot annul the covenant that was confirmed before by God in Christ, that it should make the promise of no effect. Galatians 3:17

JLB
Again,,,,the moral law has always existed.
Galatians 3:17 does not support what you are saying...
we could discuss it better if you wish...but later on.
 
With all respect, I think the problem is that you do not appear to accept the following logic, which I suggest is airtight: The fact that a certain moral principle - like not committing adultery - happens to be commandment number 37 (or whatever) of the 613 elements of the Law of Moses does not mean that abolition of the Law of Moses (all of it!) entails dispensing with the moral principle enshrined in commandment number 37.

And Paul is pretty clear - the Law of Moses is no longer in force.

We all agree we should not commit adultery

Paul is clear we are justified by faith and not the law.
But equally we are obedient to the law of Christ, because if we love our neighbour as ourself we are not law breakers but fulfilling the law.

It is a difficult jump to go from a distant self justification by following a set of rules, to actually becoming a child of God whose desire is to love and do Gods will.

Paul put it that he gave up everything for the sake of knowing Jesus, and anything in this world is rubbish compared to this relationship.

Through this relationship we see the law and its wisdom and purpose. The problem is you cannot verbalise a spiritual reality, or how love becomes anchored in ones life, or how every situation becomes the reflection of who one is. It is God who brings this about through abiding in Christ and His word. It is why Gods word is so difficult, as it is a mystery that reflects where we are and where we have got to.

No wonder the free grace group want to destroy any possibility of feeling guilt, rather than finding the place of true maturity and grace walking with Jesus, because all they believe is that is impossible and live a life of unbelief. If love and the cross cannot conquer ones deepest issues, what is their left in this world or eternity? Jesus and the cross is the only answer, so one needs to work on why sin cannot be repented of and resolved....... God bless you
 
Christ did not come to abolish the law but to clarify it and prioritize it.

Ok.


What priority did Jesus put on Physical Circumcision?

How about food laws; what food His followers could eat and which were forbidden?


How about animal sacrifices? What priority does animal sacrifices have today?



JLB
 
The fact that Jesus and / or Paul instructed us to behave morally, even if one of their instructions were a word-for-word duplicate of one of the 10 commandments, does not mean that these 10 commandments are still in effect as a law or code to govern behaviour. Based on the broad scriptural picture, I believe Jesus would be willing to say this:

I am announcing the retirement of the Law of Moses because I am fulfilling it in the sense of completing it's job - so stop looking to it for guidance. Instead, listen to me as I provide you with fresh moral guidance. But if I tell you to not covet, that guidance is coming from me - the fact that it also happens to be in the 10 commandments does not mean you should be consulting the 10 commandments. Listen to me instead. And remember, the 10 commandments were not ever applicable to Gentiles anyway, they were only delivered to Jews.
 
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Ok.


What priority did Jesus put on Physical Circumcision?

How about food laws; what food His followers could eat and which were forbidden?


How about animal sacrifices? What priority does animal sacrifices have today?



JLB
There seems to be some kind of misunderstanding as to what the Law is.
Some speak of the Law of Moses, which encompasses ALL of the 613 ordinances.
Some speak of the Moral Law which is the 10 commandments...this can also be called
the Law of God. It ENCOMPASSED in the Law of Moses. And has existed from the beginning
of time. (by different names).

Because SOME of the Law of Moses was man-made....
but the Law of God was written on stone by God and then written in our hearts.
So it is valid for both the Mosaic Covenant and the New Covenant.

Perhaps we're losing sight of what the Natural Law is
or the Noahic Law....

Besides the fact that you dislike using unbiblical terms...
why do you not agree that God's Moral Law will ALWAYS be in effect?

The 10 commandments (or 9) must always be obeyed.

In the Mosaic Covenant due to fear.
In the New Covenant due to love.
 
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