Drew
Member
Hi Stranger:
I get the impression that you believe that the annihilationist is forced into a position where he has to deal with the "undestructablility" of the resurrection body that the unredeemed get Is this a correct characterization of your view?
I guess what puzzles me about this is the following: What is it about the terms of the annihilationist argument and / or the content of the Scriptures that makes you think that we annihilationists have to hold the view that the resurrection body of the unredeemed shares the same imperishable property that applies to the resurrection bodies of the redeemed.
Is your argument that both sets of people get "spiritual" bodies and therefore if one group gets imperishable bodies, they both do? If so, I would claim that 1 cor 15 is really only talking about the redeemed and is basically silent on the bodies that the unredeemed get.
By the way, I believe that the Scriptures do not contain an explicit declaration to the effect that "the resurrection bodies of the unredeemed are perishable". By contrast, 1 cor 15 explicitly states that the redeemed get imperiable bodies. But the absence of the former explicit declaration does not seem problematic to me. Is the absence of such a statement a part of your objection to the annihilation position?
I get the impression that you believe that the annihilationist is forced into a position where he has to deal with the "undestructablility" of the resurrection body that the unredeemed get Is this a correct characterization of your view?
I guess what puzzles me about this is the following: What is it about the terms of the annihilationist argument and / or the content of the Scriptures that makes you think that we annihilationists have to hold the view that the resurrection body of the unredeemed shares the same imperishable property that applies to the resurrection bodies of the redeemed.
Is your argument that both sets of people get "spiritual" bodies and therefore if one group gets imperishable bodies, they both do? If so, I would claim that 1 cor 15 is really only talking about the redeemed and is basically silent on the bodies that the unredeemed get.
By the way, I believe that the Scriptures do not contain an explicit declaration to the effect that "the resurrection bodies of the unredeemed are perishable". By contrast, 1 cor 15 explicitly states that the redeemed get imperiable bodies. But the absence of the former explicit declaration does not seem problematic to me. Is the absence of such a statement a part of your objection to the annihilation position?