mondar, these scriptures are powerful evidence for osas but I fail to see how they prove irresistible grace in any way.
John 6:44 No man can come to me, except the Father that sent me draw him: and I will raise him up in the last day.
I see, in this verse, that the Father must draw a man in order for him to come. If he comes, the Lord will raise him up.
I don't see that it says, that the man definitely Will come.
John 6:39 And this is the will of him that sent me, that of all that which he hath given me I should lose nothing, but should raise it up at the last day.
I see in this verse, that it is the Father's will that the Lord will not lose and will raise up, all those who come (they were draw by the Father)per v44.
Neither verse says that if the Father draws the man will come. If you can break it down, using the words in the text itself, it might be helpful.
First, thank you for asking questions concerning the text. That is of course exactly what a Christian should do, we go to the text.
Concerning the text......
The first thing to address in verse 44 is the phrase "and I will raise him up on the last day." The phrase is actually found three times in the passage. The first two times are in verses 39 and 40...
Joh 6:39 And this is the will of him that sent me, that of all that which he hath given me I should lose nothing,
but should raise it up at the last day.
Joh 6:40 For this is the will of my Father, that every one that beholdeth the Son, and believeth on him, should have eternal life;
and I will raise him up at the last day.
Verse 40 makes it clear that the phrase is not speaking of a general resurrection of everyone, but the context and phrase is speaking only of the resurrection of the saved. Please notice that the first part of the verse speaks of salvation ( "every one that beholdeth the Son, and believeth on him, should have eternal life"). When looking at this resurrection, then, it is a resurrection for only those who believeth. With that in mind, I do not think the phrase "and I will raise him up on the last day" needs to much explanation in verse 40. The word "everyone" is not speaking of the entire human race, that the whole human race are believers. That is a doctrine called universalism. So also, the ones being raised up are not all men everywhere, but they are the ones who believe, and behold the Son. So then, it is a limited group that the phrase "
and I will raise him up on the last day" speaks of. It is limited to believers only.
When the same identical phrase occurs in verse 44, it has to be the same group. It again speaks of the resurrection of the saved. So then, the question is how did these people get saved, they are first drawn.
Joh 6:44 No man can come to me, except the Father that sent me draw him: and I will raise him up in the last day.
Notice the two actions preformed by the Father and Son. The Father draws "
him", and the Son raises "
him." Now the pronoun "him" is speaking of the same group or person. There is no possible exegetical reason to make them two different groups. They occur in the passage right together and must speak of the same group.
So then, in this passage how many of those drawn are raised up to salvation on the last day.
1- A few
2- Some
3- Most
4- Each and everyone drawn is raised.
Now could it be that some of those drawn by the Father are not raised up by the Son? If words mean anything, and they do, the two groups are the same. Each person drawn by the Father is raised up by the Son to salvation. If the whole word is drawn, then the whole world is saved and we have universalism. All would come to faith.
The doctrine of irresistible grace simply makes the claim that God never fails in saving those he chose. The fact that God draws, and this drawing without fail leads to eternal life is what the term "irresistible grace" is about.
SEMANTICS:
If I might add that I do not consider the acrostic TULIP to be the best teaching tool. People in general seem to misunderstand the 5 points for some reason. Some Reformed people use the term "effectual grace" instead of "irresistible grace." I favor the different terminology. We can actually resist God. The scripture asks "why do you resist the Holy Spirit." Certainly men have the capacity to resist the gospel. Oh how I wish all we had to do is preach the gospel and no one would resist it. That would be great, but it just aint that way, is it! So the gospel and Gods grace is certainly resistible. Of course in saying this I am changing what Reformed people mean by the term. Reformed people agree with my statements here. This is why some reformed people use the term "effectual grace." Effectual grace always has its effect. That effect is cause by regeneration. The concept of regeneration as the cause of faith actually underlies much of the discussion. What that concept is understood, the 5 points fall into their proper place. In essence, there are no 1-4 pointers. When you understand how the doctrine of regeneration as the cause of faith, then you understand the 5 points as 1 doctrine and you understand it correctly.
John 6:44 has been a fascination to me because it involves the trinity. Those who are saved, are drawn by the Father, raised by the Son, and in Titus 3:5 we see that they are regenerated by the Holy Spirit. Salvation involves all members of the trinity. It is one salvation, and one God, but all three persons are involved in different aspects of salvation.
What I am saying about the text might not be easy to grasp, but I trust you will go to the text. It might take some wrestling with the text, but again, that's what Christians do. Thanks for the question on the text.