Whom became negative ? God created all things...This has nothing to do with free will.
Who or What created the negative?
God is positive.
Join For His Glory for a discussion on how
https://christianforums.net/threads/a-vessel-of-honor.110278/
https://christianforums.net/threads/psalm-70-1-save-me-o-god-lord-help-me-now.108509/
Strengthening families through biblical principles.
Focus on the Family addresses the use of biblical principles in parenting and marriage to strengthen the family.
Read daily articles from Focus on the Family in the Marriage and Parenting Resources forum.
Whom became negative ? God created all things...This has nothing to do with free will.
Who or What created the negative?
God is positive.
How was that not a response? I replied to a comment you made in that post.You are welcome to employ a response to the post already made, line by line if you prefer.
Proverbs 16:4How was that not a response? I replied to a comment you made in that post.
Everything God created was good.You mean evil is created by Lord?
Everything God created was good.
Gen 1:31 And God saw every thing that he had made, and, behold, it was very good. And the evening and the morning were the sixth day.
As darkness is the absence of light, evil is the absence of good.
Satan was created as perfect but chose to rebel and do evil. He, and those angels which followed him, are the source and cause of all evil.
Eze 28:14-15 Thou art the anointed cherub that covereth; and I have set thee so: thou wast upon the holy mountain of God; thou hast walked up and down in the midst of the stones of fire. Thou wast perfect in thy ways from the day that thou wast created, till iniquity was found in thee.
Man is a free agent, he can do good or evil. Until he was enticed by Satan, he did only good.
Anyway, that's what it looks like from here.
iakov the fool
Yes! (Isaiah 45:7 in the King James Version)You mean evil is created by Lord?
Everything to God is good because any plan He makes is good and perfect. If there is any misunderstanding it only because those who believe otherwise uses their mortal human understanding. Isaiah 45:7 KJV says what He forms and creates.Excellent explanation iakov the fool!
Everything to God is good because any plan He makes is good and perfect. If there is any misunderstanding it only because those who believe otherwise uses their mortal human understanding. Isaiah 45:7 KJV says what He forms and creates.
I suggest reading the scriptures in a language that you speak (modern English rather than Late Middle English) based on older and better sources than those used for the Textus Receptus.Yes! (Isaiah 45:7 in the King James Version)
1. The KJV was from 1611. The start of the country was 1776.Jim and Oz I will stick with what The Holy Spirit gave to us from the start of this country
That is exactly what happened to the KJV. Men got together and de3cided to remove the apocrypha which was included in the original 1611 KJV.When a person uses revised versions they are using something that men have gotten together and decided to change
Erasmus was a Roman Catholic Scholar.Eramus, Tyndale, Luther, and others fought to free people from the governing hands of the catholic church
Nonsense.King James was inspired by The Holy Spirit
Actually from your response I can tell you have no idea what has been said therefore I say ask The Holy Spirit to teach you or else you will never get it.
Actually the derogatory rumors probably were not true.1. The KJV was from 161. The start of the country was 1776.
2. The Holy Spirit didn't give it, a bunch Greek and Latin scholars did at the behest of the homosexual King James.
That is exactly what happened to the KJV. Men got together and de3cided to remove the apocrypha which was included in the original 1611 KJV.
Erasmus was a Roman Catholic Scholar.
Martin Luther was a Roman Catholic priest. (And, IMO, a better Roman Catholic than the Pope.)
It was the PROTESTANT Henry VIII who made sure Tyndale was martyred not "the governing hands of the catholic church".
His final words, spoken "at the stake with a fervent zeal, and a loud voice", were reported as "Lord! Open the King of England's eyes." (Foxe 1570, p. VIII. 1229)
Nonsense.
King James was a open homosexual. The joke of the time was, "Elizazbeth was king and now James is Queen.
Jim and Oz I will stick with what The Holy Spirit gave to us from the start of this country and it is up to you all on what version you use. When a person uses revised versions they are using something that men have gotten together and decided to change what they are afraid of and do not understand into something they can control others with and I can clearly see that happening among denominations as Jesus has warned us not to be deceived and get away from doctrines of men and their precepts.
Tishlev 25 and the account is found in maccabees.But, to be fair...
The 1611 KJV has two "forwards" in it.
One concerned about not publicly displaying this translation and keeping it chained up and the punishment for defying the King.
But the other one was concerned about the reasons why they created this translation. The chief reason was for readability. So that the people could learn and know the scripture for themselves without a priest educated in Latin...
And language that is being used is what we refer to as a living language. So living languages change over time. And the translators of the KJV understood this as well. The translators had to make a lot of choices about how to relate the substance of the scriptures to an English speaking audience with no understanding of anthropology and a receptor language without many of the parts of speech that the donor language had.
One of the many things created was the myth that Jesus was a carpenter. In English speaking areas there was plenty of forests and trees. A carpenter was a low skill construction worker. A stone mason (what Jesus really worked as) was a high skill construction worker. (Top of the food chain).
So a choice was made so people could understand.
Another instance that stands out is in John 1:12. This verse is written in the past tense when the perfect aortist tense doesn't exist in the English language. (Perfect Aortist tense is past, present, and future all at the same time)
Again the translators had to make a decision...
And the KJV forward also mentions that if it is found the obsolete because language has changed that it should be abandoned.
And concerning the Apocrypha...it's inclusion or omission has been back and forth throughout Jewish and Christian history since it's creation. Mostly because it doesn't pass the tests for scripture. (Factual errors and inaccuracy in reporting)
But the whole of Hanukkah is explained there (Festival of Lights).
No rumors:Actually the derogatory rumors probably were not true.
There was already an English translation available. The Tyndale Bible has 75 years earlier.The chief reason was for readability. So that the people could learn and know the scripture for themselves without a priest educated in Latin...
Yes, I have made that point many times. The KJV is written in Late Middle English and modern translations are written in modern English. I have never met anyone who spoke Late Middle English as his primary language.And language that is being used is what we refer to as a living language. So living languages change over time. And the translators of the KJV understood this as well.
What is your source of that information?A stone mason (what Jesus really worked as)
The LXX was the version of scripture in common use at the time of Jesus primarily because the Jews no longer spoke the Hebrew of the scriptures which was diluted during the Babylonian exile. The quotations of scripture found in the NT are from the LXX. (F.F> Bruce stated that Paul corrected the LXX where it departed from the original Hebrew. He had the education to do so.)And concerning the Apocrypha...it's inclusion or omission has been back and forth throughout Jewish and Christian history since it's creation. Mostly because it doesn't pass the tests for scripture.