One determines the intended meaning through context:
When, in Romans 9, Paul writes that "For they are not all Israel who are descended from Israel", we conclude, from what he goes on to the say, that the first reference to Israel here is a reference to the church.
And there are other examples. I think the evidence is clear: Paul has two "Israels" in his set of concepts - one of them the nation of Israel, the other the Jew+Gentile church.
Hello Drew... long time no chat. We have talked many times about Romans 9. Certainly I am in accord with your suggestion that the meaning of a phrase must be determined by the context. Let me first repeat what I hear you saying.
You are looking at the phrase "They are not all Israel." You say this phrase speaks of both Jews and Gentiles in the Church? Right? I say this because of your 2nd sentence in which you speak of the "Jew+Gentile church." So then, the question is are Gentiles included in the meaning of the term Israel in Romans 9:6.
Now for my opinion... I think every decent exegete will recognize that there is a "non-Israel" in the first phrase. I don't think you are saying anything different. You too recognize that there is a "non-Israel" in the phrase you choose. Where we disagree is on the exact identity of that "non-Israel."
I see 3 groups in Romans 9:6.
1 "They" ---- Grammatically, when you have a pronoun, you must always look for its antecedent. The antecedent of the pronoun "they" is found in verses 3-5. It would be a gross violation of the rules of grammar to suggest that verses 3-4 does not speak of genetic Israel. Notice the language of verse 3....
"for my brethren's sake, my kinsmen according to the flesh: 4 who are Israelites; "
Paul further elaborates that this Israel.... "They" have the covenants, the giving of the law... etc.
I hope we agree on #1 here that the antecedent of the word "they" in verse 6 is Genetic ISrael. Do we agree here?
2 "are not all Israel" ---- Now I want to mention that the clause in question here does not say "They are no Israel." Notice the word "all." The actual clause is that "they are not 'all' Israel." This means that not "all" genetic Israel is Israel." Of course unbelieving Israel rejected God and Christ. Paul is saying that these unbelievers are not a part of the term "Israel" in the sense of the fulfillment of the fulfillment of the (verse 4-5) ...
"...the adoption, and the glory, and the covenants, and the giving of the law, and the service of God, and the promises; 5 whose are the fathers, and of whom is Christ as concerning the flesh..."
All these great blessings do not belong to "all" genetic Israel. This of course means that some of Genetic Israel will be the fulfillment of these promises. In my opinion, Paul is here not talking about the whole Church, but only the believing Jewish part of the Church. He is saying that not all genetic Israel is the believing Israel part of the Church. So this 2nd group is non-believing Israelites.
3 "that are of Israel" This phrase speaks of believing, elect Israel. This is the Israel of God. This does not speak of Gentiles, but of the believing part of Genetic Israel. Paul is going to include Gentiles in this group later in the passage in verse 24. He says.... "24 even us, whom he also called, not from the Jews only, but also from the Gentiles? " While it is true that there is no difference between Jew and Gentile in the Church, this does not mean that there is no Jew and Gentile in the Church.
CONCLUSION
In all this, I am not seeing Gentiles in verse 6. Every time the term Israel is used in the passage, it seems to me that it is used either of all Genetic Israel, or some part of Genetic Israel, either believing or unbelieving. The Gentiles never enter the picture until verse 24. Then Paul merely says that the same principle that applies to Israel, works also with the Gentiles.
This leaves Romans 9 as saying that all the things mentioned in verse 3-5 belong to part of Genetic Israel. It is then fulfilled with that group. When God includes Gentiles in the same identical blessings in verse 24, that would not "fulfill" the promises to genetic Israel. However, while this is true, the giving of identical blessing to Gentiles does not break his word either. God never promises to give the blessings of verses 4-5 to only Israel. The fact that he gives the same grace to Gentiles that he promised to Jews only means that his grace can super abound beyond his promises and go to Gentiles. So then, God must fulfill his promises literally to Jews, but his grace is in no way limited to only Jews by his promises.
ONE MORE COMMENT
There are two phrases in the passage that I want to include in our discussion because I think they are the real topic behind Romans 9 This is what chapter 9 is really all about. It is the beginning of verse 6 and also verse 11. It seems to me that the essence of the passage is an apologetic to unbelieving Jews.
"6 But it is not as though the word of God hath come to nought.
11 ....that the purpose of God according to election might stand, not of works, but of him that calleth, "
* It seems to me that there is a major contrast between verse 6 and verse 11. In verse 6 Paul is concerned to show why the word of God does not
fall. Compare this with verse 11 where the purpose of God will
stand.
If we view the promises of verses 4-5 as being to genetic Israel, and in verse 3 Paul stresses that the promises are indeed to genetic Israel, then the word of God falls unless those promises are fulfilled in genetic Israel. Chapter 9 explains that the word of God stands, the promise of God will be made good, and that has to do with the elect of Israel. If no Gentiles were saved, the word of God would still stand. The apologetic to unbelieving Jews is not that Gentiles are saved and called Israel. The apologetic concerns that the promises to Jews will be fulfilled with Jews. While this might be true, verse 24 makes it very very very clear, that while the issue concerning the word of God standing or falling has to do with Israel, the Gentiles partake in that very same salvation, and in the very same blessings that Israel received.
That comes out a little interesting... because if you look at the passage with reference to salvation, all believers partake in Israels blessings and promises. In that way we are all Israel even if we are Gentiles. It is one Church. But when looking at the apologetic of the passage, and what Paul is saying concerning the word of God standing or falling, it messes up the apologetic of Romans 9 to say that Gentiles are a part of Israel. The apologetic part of the passage can never be understood in the right way if you make Gentiles to be any part of verse 6.