jasoncran
Member
yes but the dietary laws weren't kosher.That's quite an interesting question. The first mention of homosexual behavior is in Leviticus 20, but the story of the destruction of Sodom and Gomorrah is much earlier, in Genesis 18-19. How could God judge people for violating a commandment that hadn't been given yet? The answer is simple. The commandment had already been given. It just wasn't written down in the Biblical account that we have today. If we read a bit between the lines, we see implications that a number of commandments were given before the written account was given that we have today. For example, God was displeased with Cain's sacrifice. That implies that God had already told them how to offer a proper sacrifice. And why were they offering sacrifices in the first place, unless God had told them to do so? Also, before Cain murdered his brother, God spoke to him about sin (Gen. 4:6-7), as if Cain already knew what sin was. We don't know the details, but it's clear that God had already given a moral code for people to live by, and it included instructions about sacrifices and a commandment prohibiting murder. The Israelites knew about the Sabbath before the Ten Commandments were given (Ex. 16:22-26). Noah knew about clean and unclean animals (Gen. 7:2), which must mean that God had already given rules to distinguish between the clean and unclean.
And that last point implies something else. If God gave Noah (or someone before him) dietary rules then He gave them to Gentiles, as well as Jews.
The TOG
noah could eat pigs. all that means that. all.
the command of the shabat wasn't given then if it was the jews wouldn't have asked moses about what to do when one breaks it. they would have known. yet with circumsion they knew that death was the penalty for its failure.