That being said, here is something to consider--
"For if God did not spare the angels who sinned, but cast them down to hell and delivered them into chains of darkness, to be reserved for judgment; and did not spare the ancient world, but saved Noah, one of eight people, a preacher of righteousness..."
This text clearly connects two judgments:
The judgment of angels who sinned, and
The judgment of the ancient world in the days of Noah.
Yes, but we have to ask, How are these two judgments being connected? Were the "sons of God" in the pre-Flood account representative of angels who sinned? Or, was the ancient world following after Satan, who was an angel that sinned?
We know that rebellious angels are "chained" in some way. We seem to see that in Rev 9.1. This is the Locust Plague in which demonic locusts are released from their bondage to plague some people in the world. So they may be kept in chains, but can be released by Satan, perhaps?
Satan himself is bound in sin, and fallen from heaven, perhaps? But he remains active despite this bondage.
So, what was Satan's sin? He wanted people to depart from obedience to God's word, and to follow his advice. He wanted the worship of men, which is an unnatural relationship between angels and men.
The key interpretive question is: what sin did these angels commit? -- and more specifically, was it sexual in nature?
There is more than one possibility. We have no examples of men and angels fornicating unless we identify the "sons of God" in Genesis 6 as angels.
And that is not at all certain. Angels do not appear to procreate, as Jesus indicated in Mark
12.25--"When the dead rise, they will neither marry nor be given in marriage; they will be like the angels in heaven."
Now this doesn't say that angels cannot have sex. But that may be implied in the statement that they *don't marry.* Furthermore, we only have mankind procreating in Genesis--not angels.
1. 2 Peter 2:4–5
Peter does not specify the sin explicitly, but he aligns it chronologically with Noah’s time, thus linking the sin of the angels with the antediluvian (pre-Flood) period.
As I showed you, the alignment of the sins of angels and the sins prior to the Flood does not determine the sins of the angels, even though they are comparable. Rebellion is rebellion whether it involves angels rebelling against God's word or mankind rebelling against God's word. There is no definite comparison on the *kind of sin.*
2. Jude 6–7 (parallel passage)
“And the angels who did not keep their proper domain, but left their own abode, He has reserved in everlasting chains under darkness for the judgment of the great day;
as Sodom and Gomorrah... having given themselves over to sexual immorality and gone after strange flesh, are set forth as an example, suffering the vengeance of eternal fire.” (NKJV)
This is a crucial interpretive key-
Jude directly compares the angels’ sin to Sodom and Gomorrah’s sexual perversion, which involved going after strange flesh (Greek: σὰρκα ἑτέραν, "different flesh").
"Strange flesh" refers to unnatural desire, such as homosexuality. The men of Sodom sought to have sex with the men they did not know were angels. They were indulging their homosexual lust, or lust after "strange flesh." The angels only appeared as flesh, but likely were not actually "flesh and blood."
Scholars such as Douglas Moo, Tom Schreiner, and Richard Bauckham affirm that Jude is referring to the angelic rebellion in Genesis 6:1–4, where “sons of God” (bene elohim) take human women as wives--interpreted by many Jewish and early Christian sources as angels engaging in sexual relations with humans.
Yes, I know that many good Christians believe the angels had sex with women. I don't, and I'm a good Christian too.
There are all kinds of ancient beliefs, probably indulged in by good Christians, that did not turn out to be true. Christians down through the ages have accepted documents that were partly true and partly false, such as Enoch.
Early Jewish Interpretation
1 Enoch 6–10
An ancient Jewish text widely read in the Second Temple period and quoted in Jude (v. 14–15), 1 Enoch explicitly teaches that angels (the Watchers) lusted after and mated with human women, producing the Nephilim. This text heavily influenced Peter and Jude’s portrayal.
Yes, many thought Enoch was virtually canonical, perhaps. But ultimately, it was not accepted as such. It doesn't mean everything in Enoch was wrong. But in the end, some of it was found to be uninspired.
Quite frankly, I think a number of good questions have questioned the canonical nature of books like Revelation, as well as others now considered canonical. Luther didn't accept James. A lot of good Christians early and later accepted apocryphal books that later were rejected as non-canonical.
Philo of Alexandria (De Gigantibus §6–7)
Philo also held the view that fallen heavenly beings had sexual relations with women, an interpretation consistent with many Jewish writers of the period.
There are good people on both sides of many arguments.
So--did the angels commit actual, sexual sin?
Yes, according to the contextual flow of 2 Peter 2:4–5, the parallel in Jude 6–7, and the interpretive backdrop of Genesis 6:1–4, the angels who sinned are widely understood to have committed sexual sin by abandoning their proper nature and engaging in unnatural relations with humans.
I don't believe 2 Pet 2 and Jude 6-7 indicate that angels commited sexual sin. As you pointed out, the general events of angelic rebellion and punishment together with human rebellion and punishment were connected. But the sexual sin was *not* connected, unless you make the assumption 1st that the "sons of God" were angels.
I don't see that. The "sons of God" can be either angels or men who had chosen to initially follow God. These "sons of God" were, in my thinking, "backsliders," who let their eyes indulge in lust, consequently coming under judgment by the Flood.
The sin of the angels is related, biblically, only to Satan. He represents angelic rebellion generally, and sinned by tempting man to disobey God's word. That meant his sin was rebellion against God's word, appearing to get mankind to worship himself in place of God.
This interpretation was standard among:
Second Temple Jewish texts (1 Enoch, Jubilees)
Early Church Fathers (Justin Martyr, Athenagoras, Irenaeus, Tertullian, etc.)
Many modern scholars (e.g., Michael Heiser, Richard Bauckham, Larry Hurtado)
I personally value Jewish sources and am not hesitant to engage with the Apocrypha, as well as the customs and cultural background of the Jewish people.
Understanding these elements often sheds much-needed light on the historical and theological context of Scripture.
Shalom.
J.
You make a good argument, and I've heard it before. It just never convinced me. Sorry!
Engaging in this kind of speculation doesn't have enough explicit evidence for me. It is more like piecing things together to make it fit, and then corroborating that with a large number of respectable names.
Doesn't work. Men and angels mating--Rosemary's Baby! ;) Do we ever tire of indulging our carnal interest in fantasies? Or, are stories like this respectable enough to be believed? I think we have to look deep inside to see what the answer is?