Rajesh Sahu
2024 Supporter
Great explanation. Thank you for sharing dear OzRajesh,
I'll focus on this 'perfect' translation. The problem we have here is with the English translation of 'perfect' that communicates the idea of complete or absolute sinlessness. Even with Jesus living in me, I'm incapable of that standard - because I have a sinful nature, that God does not have.
I conclude that,
(1) either God is requiring something I cannot attain (perfection) - which makes God a liar (which He is not - Heb 6:18), or
(2) in the original languages, 'perfection' has a meaning that is difference from our English connotation.
The word for 'perfect' in Matt 5:48 is teleios. It refers to a goal and I don't know one single word in English to convey its meaning. It doesn't mean absolute sinlessness, just like God can't sin, because if we go back to Matt 5:6, the disciples are blessed if they 'hunger and thirst for righteousness'. Verse 7 states, 'Blessed are the merciful, for they will be shown mercy' (NIV). They are not yet completely merciful but will be shown mercy by God if they engage in merciful acts.
Therefore, I conclude that 'perfect' is not the meaning of teleios. In fact, it's a misleading interpretation of the original. The statement of Matt 5:48 comes from Deut 18:13, 'Thou shalt be perfect with the Lord thy God' (KJV), which modern translations render as, 'You shall be blameless before the Lord your God' (NKJV). Here, 'perfect' is the Hebrew, tham, which means 'complete', like a whole number (Lenski).
We are called to reach the goal of maturity in Christ, to become blameless, complete, a person of integrity, in his sight.
Oz