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Bible Study Conditional Immortality

Brother,

Clearly Jesus sentences the lost to everlasting fire that has been prepared before hand for the purpose of tormenting of ever and forever.

Please show me from this scripture where a "cease to exist" condition being taught by Jesus.

Then He will also say to those on the left hand, 'Depart from Me, you cursed, into the everlasting fire prepared for the devil and his angels: And these will go away into everlasting punishment, but the righteous into eternal life."
Matthew 25:41,46

Everlasting destruction means just that; forever being destroyed.

In addition, the one suffering everlasting destruction will be tormented day and night without rest.

Please show me from this scripture where you see Jesus referring to the one being punished as ceasing to exist.


JLB
Hi JLB,

Please stop debating in this thread, if you would like to see where these Scriptures are provided, read the posts in this thread. I already have addressed the texts you are using for your arguments and presented some of the Scriptures that support our position strongly.

Go read them please, and let the debating end there.

Regards,
DI
 
Words have meaning, you can't just reinterpret them however you please.


These texts have already been addressed in post #35 and #7.

You guys keep posting it, thinking it is making some kind of new and insightful argument, but we have long since refuted these interpretations.

You have never refuted any words of Jesus.

Then He will also say to those on the left hand, 'Depart from Me, you cursed, into the everlasting fire prepared for the devil and his angels: And these will go away into everlasting punishment, but the righteous into eternal life."
Matthew 25:41,46

It does say that they will perish, die, and be destroyed both body and soul. Seems pretty clear.

The destroying process is everlasting.


Unless you are trying to change the meaning of the word everlasting, then the destroying will continue forever and ever.


None of you have actually addressed what Jesus said, you just keep saying they will be destroyed....


How long will the destroying process take? Forever and ever!!


JLB
 
Hi JLB,

Please stop debating in this thread, if you would like to see where these Scriptures are provided, read the posts in this thread. I already have addressed the texts you are using for your arguments and presented some of the Scriptures that support our position strongly.

Go read them please, and let the debating end there.

Regards,
DI

I'm not debating anything, only presenting a view from what Jesus said and taught.

Please just read the scriptures I have posted and consider addressing them in this study.

I believe a complete and reconciled truth will be achieved when you consider all the scriptures that teach us about this subject.

JLB
 
You have never refuted any words of Jesus.

Then He will also say to those on the left hand, 'Depart from Me, you cursed, into the everlasting fire prepared for the devil and his angels: And these will go away into everlasting punishment, but the righteous into eternal life."
Matthew 25:41,46
Hi JLB,

This will be the last post of these sort that I will respond to, all future attempts to debate in this thread on your part will be reported to the moderators.

I did not attempt to refute Jesus words, and this portrayal of what I said is very disingenuous, you are welcome to retract such a statement or you can be reported for misrepresenting a poster as it breaches the ToS. I said this: but we have long since refuted these interpretations.

The destroying process is everlasting.
No, the Greek has the sense of completion, not a process.

Unless you are trying to change the meaning of the word everlasting, then the destroying will continue forever and ever.
We aren't, why don't you read earlier in the thread to figure out what we mean by it.

None of you have actually addressed what Jesus said, you just keep saying they will be destroyed....
Read post #7 and #35, and stop misrepresenting me or you will be reported for such.

How long will the destroying process take? Forever and ever!!
The lake of fire, which is the second death. Read the text again please.
 
I'm not debating anything, only presenting a view from what Jesus said and taught.
You are disputing what I am saying and providing your own interpretations. That is debating!

Please just read the scriptures I have posted and consider addressing them in this study.
I already have! lol

Go read post #7 and #35.

In the future ask, "hey, I would like to see your perspective on passage X when you get the chance."

I believe a complete and reconciled truth will be achieved when you consider all the scriptures that teach us about this subject.
I have done that, and I have addressed many different texts on the topic. Perhaps if you read the posts in this thread before trying to debate me with these texts you would understand that.

Any more posts debating will result in being reported.
 
Brother,

Clearly Jesus sentences the lost to everlasting fire that has been prepared before hand for the purpose of tormenting forever and ever.

Please show me from this scripture where there is a "cease to exist" condition being taught by Jesus.

Then He will also say to those on the left hand, 'Depart from Me, you cursed, into the everlasting fire prepared for the devil and his angels: And these will go away into everlasting punishment, but the righteous into eternal life."
Matthew 25:41,46

Everlasting destruction means just that; forever being destroyed.

In addition, the one suffering everlasting destruction will be tormented day and night without rest.

Please show me from this scripture where you see Jesus referring to the one being punished as ceasing to exist.


JLB

Hi JLB,

If you look at post 77 here I began to address this issue. There are many places that the phrase "forever" doesn't mean forever. In the post there are 10 passages that use the word forever and yet it cannot mean forever. I think we would all do well to study this phrase in depth. I don't think the translators did this term justice.
 
Hi JLB,

If you look at post 77 here I began to address this issue. There are many places that the phrase "forever" doesn't mean forever. In the post there are 10 passages that use the word forever and yet it cannot mean forever. I think we would all do well to study this phrase in depth. I don't think the translators did this term justice.

Does eternal life mean life forever?
 
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The Holy Scriptures will be treated as such. Zero tolerance for breaks of the ToS. The OP will set the tone of the thread/study. We are expecting members to be aware of the fine line between discussion and argument. Please feel free to open a new thread and avoid the battle.

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"There is a forum for [ blogs] if members are not interested in discussion."
 
Does eternal life mean life forever?
You can decide for yourself is that is true or not. (not being snarky)

In two posts HERE and HERE I took EVERY verse that had the Greek word αἰώνιος in it. The 69 verses are spread over two posts containing 71 usages, and there is no omission of any verse in the entire Greek NT that has the word αἰώνιος in it.

I cannot tell you if you are right or wrong. However I can, and did supply you with the tools whereby you could make an informed decision.
 
Brother,

Clearly Jesus sentences the lost to everlasting fire that has been prepared before hand for the purpose of tormenting forever and ever.

Please show me from this scripture where there is a "cease to exist" condition being taught by Jesus.

Then He will also say to those on the left hand, 'Depart from Me, you cursed, into the everlasting fire prepared for the devil and his angels: And these will go away into everlasting punishment, but the righteous into eternal life."
Matthew 25:41,46

Everlasting destruction means just that; forever being destroyed.

In addition, the one suffering everlasting destruction will be tormented day and night without rest.

Please show me from this scripture where you see Jesus referring to the one being punished as ceasing to exist.


JLB
Okay I will show you from this scripture where you see Jesus referring to the one being punished as ceasing to exist.

Jesus said that those on his left would go into everlasting fire. The fire destroys them, so they cease to exist. That is what fire does, and that is what Jesus said in Matthew 10:28, "fear the one who can destroy both soul and body in Gehenna". Continuing from Matthew 25:46, Jesus said the righteous go into eternal life. Do the unrighteous ALSO go into eternal life, a life of eternal living torment? If so, why did Jesus only say that the righteous go into eternal life? See how the doctrine of eternal conscious torment doesn't hold up, even from the verses that are used to support it? Also, Matthew 25:46 says "everlasting punishment", NOT "everlasting torment". You and I both AGREE that the punishment is everlasting. We just disagree on what the punishment is. I say that the punishment is death, which lasts forever and you say the punishment is torment which lasts forever. But it doesn't matter what you or I say, what matters is what the Bible says the punishment for sin is. Romans 6:23 says that the wages of sin is death, not eternal conscious torment. Romans 6:23 goes on to say that the gift of God is eternal life. Do those who reject God also receive the gift of eternal life? No they don't. They perish just as the Bible says.

But as I said before, you are free to believe whatever you think is true, and so am I.
 
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Okay I will show you from this scripture where you see Jesus referring to the one being punished as ceasing to exist.
Jesus said that those on his left would go into everlasting fire. The fire destroys them, so they cease to exist.

Here is a comparison for us to study -


Jesus' words -

Then He will also say to those on the left hand, 'Depart from Me, you cursed, into the everlasting fire prepared for the devil and his angels:


Your words -

The fire destroys them, so they cease to exist.

In studying the comparison between your words and Jesus words, I found the phrase that Jesus stated to be interesting.

...prepared for the devil and his angels:

This seems to be the same fire that those whom Jesus sentenced are cast into.


Also, Matthew 25:46 says "everlasting punishment", NOT "everlasting torment".


What is the punishment?

Is it possible that the punishment is in fact to be tormented day and night with no rest, as the devil and his angels are?


JLB
 
Here is a comparison for us to study -


Jesus' words -

Then He will also say to those on the left hand, 'Depart from Me, you cursed, into the everlasting fire prepared for the devil and his angels:


Your words -

The fire destroys them, so they cease to exist.

In studying the comparison between your words and Jesus words, I found the phrase that Jesus stated to be interesting.

...prepared for the devil and his angels:

This seems to be the same fire that those whom Jesus sentenced are cast into.





What is the punishment?

Is it possible that the punishment is in fact to be tormented day and night with no rest, as the devil and his angels are?


JLB
No, According to the Bible, the punishment is death. The Book of Revelation says this in figurative language. The Book of Revelation even says that the Beast is going to destruction.
The punishment is death, the fire burns up those who are cast into it. Evil will not remain forever, this is the message of the Bible.

But why are we arguing? Why don't you just believe what you think the Bible says and I will believe what I think the Bible says?
I see overwhelming support in the Bible that the lost perish. I don't need to convince you to see it.
 
I'd like to say a little more on the word "Forever". I started to address this in the other thread, Body, Soul, Spirit, in post #77. In the Masoretic text the word that is usually transferred "forever" is the Hebrew "olam," here is the definition.

Theological Workbook of the Old Testament
1631 ‏עלם‎ (ʿlm) III. Assumed root of the following.

1631a †‏עוֹלָם‎ (ʿôlām) <H5769>, <H5865> forever, ever, everlasting, evermore, perpetual, old, ancient, world, etc. (RSV similar in general, but substitutes "always" for "in the world" in Psalm 73:12 and eternity" for "world" in Eccles. 3:11.) Probably derived from ʿālam I, "to hide," thus pointing to what is hidden in the distant future or in the distant past. The Ugaritic cognate is ʿlm, "eternity."

Though ʿôlām is used more than three hundred times to indicate indefinite continuance into the very distant future, the meaning of the word is not confined to the future. There are at least twenty instances where it clearly refers to the past. Such usages generally point to something that seems long ago, but rarely if ever refer to a limitless past. Thus in Deut. 32:7 and Job 22:15 it may refer to the time of one's elders. In Proverbs 22:28; Proverbs 23:10; Jeremiah 6:16; Jeremiah 18:15; Jeremiah 28:8 it points back somewhat farther. In Isaiah 58:12; Isaiah 61:4; Micah 7:14; Malachi 3:4, and in the Aramaic of Ezra 4:15, 19 it clearly refers to the time just before the exile. In 1 Samuel 27:8, in Isaiah 51:9 and Isaiah 63:9, 11 and perhaps Ezekiel 36:2, it refers to the events of the exodus from Egypt. In Genesis 6:4 it points to the time shortly before the flood. None of these past references has in it the idea of endlessness or limitlessness, but each points to a time long before the immediate knowledge of those living. In Isaiah 64:3 the KJV translates the word "beginning of the world." In Psalm 73:12 and Eccles. 3:11 it is translated "world," suggesting the beginning of a usage that developed greatly in postbiblical times.

Theological Wordbook of the Old Testament.

Does anyone see a problem here. The first definition given for olam is forever or everlasting, yet it says when the word refers to the past it never means forever. How does the same word mean forever and not forever? Here is Brown-Driver-Briggs.

<H5957>, <H5769>

†‏עָלַם‎ n.[m.] perpetuity, antiquity (see BH III > ‏עלם‎, ‏עוֹּלָם‎);—‏ע׳‎ absolute Dn 3:33 +, construct 7:18; emph. ‏עָֽלְמָא‎ 2:20 +; pl. ‏עָֽלְמִין‎ 2:4 +, emph. ‏עָֽלְמַיָּא‎ 2:44 7:18;—perpetuity in the future: ‏מַלְכוּת ע׳‎ Dn 3:33 7:27, compare 4:31 7:14; ‏ע׳‎ as adverb for ever 4:31; ‏עַד־עָֽלְמָא וְעַד־עָלַם עָֽלְמַיָּא‎ 7:18; pl. ‏לְע׳‎ for ever 2:4; 2:44; 2:44 3:9 5:10 6:7; 6:22; 6:27; antiquity, ‏מִן־יוֹּמָת עָֽלְמָא‎ Ezr 4:15; 4:19; of limitless time both past and future: ‏מִן־ע׳ וְעַד־ע׳‎ Dn 2:20.

The Brown-Driver-Briggs Hebrew and English Lexicon.

They say it's limitless both past and future. Well we've seen from the Scriptures themselves that the word can and is used of times future that "ARE NOT" limitless or eternal.

Notice the first source, The Theological Workbook of the Old Testament. It says as the first definition, forever, yet, when it begins to explain the usage of the word it says, "Though ʿôlām is used more than three hundred times to indicate indefinite continuance into the very distant future". Again, how can the word mean forever and an indefinite period of time. Eternity is not a indefinite period of time.

So, how does one define Olam when they come across it in the text? If the word can mean eternity and an indefinite period of time there is no way to determine what the word means. It may be possible to use context sometimes but that may not always be the case. It would seem that this is a case of theology driving the interpretation. I've posted 10 passages showing olam speaking of a finite period of time, so we know it can be used finitely, the question is can it be used of infinity? The answer is, yes, it can. If it's an unspecified period of time that could be infinite, however, it doesn't have to be. Just because the word can be used to define an infinite period of time doesn't mean has to mean an infinite period of time.

I think this should make us consider the translation when we see the words forever, forever and ever, everlasting, etc. They just might not mean forever.

Butch do we have any parallel passages in the NT using aionios with the OT using olam ? In the Body soul spirit thread Debs presented Matthew 12:18 which paralells with Isaiah 42:1 showing that psuche can paralell with nephesh and pneuma can paralell with Ruach.

I don't have the software to do this search I think.
 
Butch do we have any parallel passages in the NT using aionios with the OT using olam ? In the Body soul spirit thread Debs presented Matthew 12:18 which paralells with Isaiah 42:1 showing that psuche can paralell with nephesh and pneuma can paralell with Ruach.

I don't have the software to do this search I think.

Will these work?

Dan 2:44 And in the days of these kings shall the God of heaven set up a kingdom, which shall never be destroyed: and the kingdom shall not be left to other people, but it shall break in pieces and consume all these kingdoms, and it shall stand for ever.
Luk 1:33 And he shall reign over the house of Jacob for ever; and of his kingdom there shall be no end.

Dan 12:2 And many of them that sleep in the dust of the earth shall awake, some to everlasting life, and some to shame and everlasting contempt.
Mat 25:46 And these shall go away into everlasting punishment: but the righteous into life eternal.
 
Will these work?

Dan 2:44 And in the days of these kings shall the God of heaven set up a kingdom, which shall never be destroyed: and the kingdom shall not be left to other people, but it shall break in pieces and consume all these kingdoms, and it shall stand for ever.
Luk 1:33 And he shall reign over the house of Jacob for ever; and of his kingdom there shall be no end.

Dan 12:2 And many of them that sleep in the dust of the earth shall awake, some to everlasting life, and some to shame and everlasting contempt.
Mat 25:46 And these shall go away into everlasting punishment: but the righteous into life eternal.


Hi Deb and Agua,

This is good. The passage from Dan 2:44 uses and Arabic word "alam" which is the equivalent of the Hebrew word "owlam" and in Luke 1:33 Luke used the Greek word "Aion" which is typically translated age. However, what's interesting about Luke 1:33 is that Luke tells us that the "age" will last for ever because he says, of His kingdom there shall be no end. The Bible uses phrases to indicate eternity, in this case, "shall be no end." So, even though "aion" means age, Luke tells us that that age won't end.

In Dan 12:2 the Hebrew text uses the word "owlam" in both instances and the Septuagint translates both instances with the Greek word "Aionion" which is another form of the word "Aion". Mathew uses the word "Aionios".

What I believe to be the issue is that "owlam" which is translated with "Aion" in the Septugint does not mean eternity. It can be used to speak of eternal time but eternal time is not the definition of it. Therefore, I have to wonder if "owlam" doesn't mean eternity and the Jewish Scholars that translated the Septuagint from the the Hebrews texts around 250 BC. used the word "aion" in place of "owlam" how can "aion" mean eternity? I don't think it can. While looking at these passages I did come across some interesting background info on the word "Aion" in Kittle's Theological Dictionary of the New Testament. I'll paste it for your consideration.

αἰών aiṓn [age, aeon] <G165>,
αἰώνιος aiṓnios [eternal] <G166>

aiṓn.
A. The Nonbiblical Use.
Meanings area. “vital force,” b. “lifetime,” c. “age” or “generation,” d. “time,” and e. “eternity.”

*Theological Dictionary of the New Testament: Abridged in One Volume.

The term is used in philosophical discussions of time, usually for a span of time as distinct from time as such (chrónos), though for Plato it is timeless eternity in contrast to chrónos as its moving image in earthly time (cf. Philo). In the Hellenistic world Aiṓn becomes the name of the god of eternity.


This is interesting because it tells us that at the time the NT was written the Greeks had a god of eternity that they called Aion. I think one has to wonder how much this affected the understanding to word Aion.
 
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Butch do we have any parallel passages in the NT using aionios with the OT using olam ? In the Body soul spirit thread Debs presented Matthew 12:18 which paralells with Isaiah 42:1 showing that psuche can paralell with nephesh and pneuma can paralell with Ruach.

I don't have the software to do this search I think.


Hi Agua,

What we do have is the Septuagint. We can look at it to see how the Jewish Scholars of that day translated the Hebrew "owlam" and yes they used "Aion".
 
Does eternal life mean life forever?
Hi JLB,

This is a great question, and I believe while it does mean "life forever," and certainly carries that connotation in many places. I believe it also carries a qualitative meaning in many places as well, having eternal life isn't just about immortality, it is a quality of life. More specifically, it pertains to a quality of life that is in the age to come, and that future age and life comes into this age and we become part of the New Creation. Where we have no need for a priest in the Temple to mediate with God on our behalf, but we have direct access to God through the Holy Spirit which has been given to us. He is a down payment, Paul says, of our future inheritance which of course is not some vague inheritance but rather the world. The future world where Heaven and Earth become one and we shall reign with Christ over the nations.

So to put it simply, I would say eternal life is to know God and have deep and real relationship, where the world of the future comes into the present to be a light to the world.

Blessings,
DI
 
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