Tenchi
Member
Don't you know who that is speaking of?
Did you know that John was very concerned about gnostics entering into the church?
It's talking about gnostics that did not agree with church teachings.
1 John 2:18-22
18 Children, it is the last hour, and as you have heard that antichrist is coming, so now many antichrists have come. Therefore we know that it is the last hour.
19 They went out from us, but they were not of us; for if they had been of us, they would have continued with us. But they went out, that it might become plain that they all are not of us.
20 But you have been anointed by the Holy One, and you all have knowledge.
21 I write to you, not because you do not know the truth, but because you know it, and because no lie is of the truth.
22 Who is the liar but he who denies that Jesus is the Christ? This is the antichrist, he who denies the Father and the Son.
Please show me from John's actual words here where he uses the word "gnostic," or refers directly to "gnostics," or defines the tenets of gnosticism against which he was supposedly writing. I know that what we think of today as Gnosticism was only just starting to fully coalesce into its current form when John wrote this letter, so he likely wouldn't have used such a term, but even still, he says nothing of a demiurge, or of secret, mystical knowledge, or of the gnostic flesh-spirit dualism, etc.
Even if John was in an obscure way addressing gnosticism in his letter, this idea doesn't prohibit the way in which I've understood his words in 1 John 2:19. Would not gnostics, by virtue of their heretical beliefs, be among those not truly of the faith who reveal this in their departure from the Church? Yes. What difference, then, does adopting your gnostic theory concerning John's letter make to the way I've interpreted his words? None that I can see...
Where does it say that?
You keep saying things that are not in the NT.
??? 1 John 2:19.
Hebrews 6:4-8 does also, I think, though not as explicitly as John's words.
Explain this:
2 Peter 2:20-22
20For if, after they have escaped the defilements of the world by the knowledge of the Lord and Savior Jesus Christ, they are again entangled in them and are overcome, the last state has become worse for them than the first.
21For it would be better for them not to have known the way of righteousness, than having known it, to turn away from the holy commandment handed on to them. 22It has happened to them according to the true proverb, “A DOG RETURNS TO ITS OWN VOMIT,” and, “A sow, after washing, returns to wallowing in the mire.”
What do you want explained? If one reads the entire chapter, one does not encounter a description of a Christ-follower, a born-again person. Instead, Peter had the false prophet/teacher in view:
2 Peter 2:1-3
1 But false prophets also arose among the people, just as there will be false teachers among you, who will secretly bring in destructive heresies, even denying the Master who bought them, bringing upon themselves swift destruction.
2 And many will follow their sensuality, and because of them the way of truth will be blasphemed.
3 And in their greed they will exploit you with false words. Their condemnation from long ago is not idle, and their destruction is not asleep.
I don't recognize a born-again person in these verses. Do you? So, then, when I arrive at the end of the chapter (throughout which Peter has only described very un-Christian behavior) and read the passage you've cited above, I don't take Peter to suddenly be speaking of a genuine child of God. This would, it seems to me, to be a very bizarre interpretation to adopt.
So, then, how have these "false teachers" who've carried on in the dreadful way Peter described "escaped the defilements of the world by the knowledge of the Lord"? Well, I'd draw your attention to the word "if" that begins Peter's remarks in verse 21. If it were the case that such wicked people had escaped the defilements of the world, then they would be the "pigs" and "dogs" Peter described. Is there anything in what Peter described of the false teachers throughout the chapter to warrant the belief that they had made such an escape? I don't think so. Instead, I take Peter to be theorizing here at the end of his comments about false teachers, emphasizing how much more awful it would be IF they had done all the dreadful things they'd done as actual born-again believers. Of course, such a thing isn't possible, for reasons I've already spent time explaining from God's word.
And what experience would that be?
Let God be the judge of what's going on in a person's heart.
2 Corinthians 13:5
5 Test yourselves to see if you are in the faith; examine yourselves! Or do you not recognize this about yourselves, that Jesus Christ is in you—unless indeed you fail the test?
If there's an objective, authoritative standard by which to assess ourselves and see whether or not we are in the faith, which is what the above clearly implies, then we can apply that standard to others as well as to ourselves. In fact, Paul indicates this is so in the very next verse:
2 Corinthians 13:6
6 But I trust that you will realize that we ourselves do not fail the test.
If it's not possible to see if another person "fails the test" of being in the faith, why does Paul write this? It seems to me very obvious that they could use the same standard by which they could assess themselves also to assess him. And in doing so, Paul trusted that they would see that he "passed the test."
What is the standard? The evidence of the life and work of the Holy Spirit: conviction of sin, illumination of God's Truth, strengthening in times of trial and temptation, comfort in seasons of trouble and grief, progressive transformation of the inner man, etc. These are all of the concrete ways in which the Spirit "bears witness with our spirit that we are the children of God" (Romans 8:16) and we can be certain we are truly born-again by the Spirit (John 3:3-7, Titus 3:5, Romans 8:9-12)
Continued below.