Satan is called Theos=god at 2 Cor 4:4--The word is called Theos at John 1:1 while in both spots the true God is called Ton Theon=God. Your error bibles gives satan god for Theos at 2 Cor 4:4
If the Greek says
theos then that is what it means and it is not an error. It is understanding what
theos means and how it is used in different contexts. That is not an error.
and God to the word at John 1:1--translating is the same both spots, thus to give one God is the translation calling God the liar, god= has godlike qualities it is not calling that one God as in your error thinking.
Your argument has no merit because it doesn’t take context into account. In regards to John 1:1c, it completely ignores what was stated in the first two clauses, particularly in the Greek. The first clause means that when the beginning began, the Word was already in existence (eternal), and verse 2 repeats that claim. The second clause means that the Word was in intimate, personal relationship with God; something that can only be said of persons.
John 1:1c correctly states “and the Word was God”
because there is and ever will be only one God and no other gods, so "a god" is automatically precluded. The lack of the article means that the statement is qualitative, that the Word is God in nature. And, since only God has the nature of God, to say the Word was God is correct. It
must be "the Word was God" or "the Word was God in nature," or something of that sort. To repeat, it absolutely cannot be "a god."
Again, when God says that there was no god before him and there will be none after him, we probably should take him at his word, lest we make him a liar or ignorant, like the NWT does.
God is called Theos in many spots of NT-Why? Because he is the only one being called God in those paragraphs and all know who is being spoken of. But when 2 are being called God or god in the same paragraph God gets Ton Theon and god gets Theos.
And? You haven't shown why that is significant or what it supposedly shows. Why do you think Thomas calls Jesus
Theos?
And at John 1:1 if the Word was God, then in simple English the second line is reading--And God( word) was with God= impossible,
Again, it's speaking of the nature of the Word. Since only God can have the nature of God, it follows that the Word is therefore also God.
there is only one God.=YHVH(Jehovah)-- not his son.
That is fallaciously begging the question.
Jesus tells you that at John 17:3=The one who sent Jesus=Father is THE ONLY TRUE GOD.
Context, context, context.
Joh 17:3 And this is eternal life, that they know you, the only true God, and Jesus Christ whom you have sent.
Joh 17:4 I glorified you on earth, having accomplished the work that you gave me to do.
Joh 17:5 And now, Father, glorify me in your own presence with the glory that I had with you before the world existed. (ESV)
First, Jesus says that eternal life is to know
both the Father
and the Son. Second, just two sentences later, Jesus clearly states that he preexisted with the Father prior to creation. This is exactly what John states in John 1:1-3, 10--without the Son was not one thing made that was made. That unequivocally precludes the Son from ever having not existed; he has existed for as long as the Father has existed. It cannot be otherwise.
For further support:
Joh 17:5 And now, Father, glorify me in your own presence with
the glory that I had with you before the world existed. (ESV)
But, what did Yahweh say?
Isa 48:11 For my own sake, for my own sake, I do it, for how should my name be profaned?
My glory I will not give to another. (ESV)
Is Jesus contradicting what Yahweh said? Let's first look at something John said:
Joh 12:36 While you have the light, believe in the light, that you may become sons of light.” When Jesus had said these things, he departed and hid himself from them.
Joh 12:37 Though he had done so many signs before them, they still did not believe in him,
Joh 12:38 so that the word spoken by the prophet Isaiah might be fulfilled: “Lord, who has believed what he heard from us, and to whom has the arm of the Lord been revealed?”
Joh 12:39 Therefore they could not believe. For again
Isaiah said,
Joh 12:40 “
He has blinded their eyes and hardened their heart, lest they see with their eyes, and understand with their heart, and turn, and I would heal them.”
Joh 12:41
Isaiah said these things because he saw his glory and spoke of him. (ESV)
Who does John say Isaiah saw in "his glory and spoke of him"? Clearly, John is meaning that
Isaiah saw the glory of Jesus, or rather, the Son. Looking at the context of what Isaiah was talking about:
Isa 6:1 In the year that King Uzziah died
I saw the Lord sitting upon a throne, high and lifted up; and the train of his robe filled the temple.
Isa 6:2 Above him stood the seraphim. Each had six wings: with two he covered his face, and with two he covered his feet, and with two he flew.
Isa 6:3 And one called to another and said: “
Holy, holy, holy is the LORD of hosts; the whole earth is full of his glory!”
Isa 6:4 And the foundations of the thresholds shook at the voice of him who called, and the house was filled with smoke.
Isa 6:5 And I said: “Woe is me! For I am lost; for I am a man of unclean lips, and I dwell in the midst of a people of unclean lips;
for my eyes have seen the King, the LORD of hosts!”
…
Isa 6:8 And I heard the voice of the Lord saying, “Whom shall I send, and who will go for us?” Then I said, “Here I am! Send me.”
Isa 6:9 And he said, “Go, and say to this people: “‘Keep on hearing, but do not understand; keep on seeing, but do not perceive.’
Isa 6:10 Make the heart of this people dull, and their ears heavy, and
blind their eyes; lest they see with their eyes, and hear with their ears, and understand with their hearts, and turn and be healed.” (ESV)
So, who did Isaiah actually see? He saw Yahweh in all his glory, which John says was the Son, or at least included the Son. Once again, John supports what he said in John 1:1--that the Word was in intimate, interpersonal relationship with God for all eternity past (which is the meaning of the Greek), meaning that the Word is also God in nature.
Why won't believe Jesus--errors in your translation is why.
It is JWs who don't believe Jesus and to help try and cover it up, the NWT has been added to, in Col 1:16-17 ("other").
Paul teaches the same at 1 Cor 8:5-6--he begins by warning all other gods are false, then names only the Father as God.
He does, but there are two logical statements that you are ignoring, that
every anti-Trinitarian here ignores.
1Co 8:6 yet for us there is one God, the Father, from whom are all things and for whom we exist, and one Lord, Jesus Christ, through whom are all things and through whom we exist. (ESV)
First,
if "one God, the Father" precludes the Son from also being God,
then it necessarily follows that "one Lord, Jesus Christ" precludes the Father from also being Lord. That is basic logic and sound reasoning. Yet, we know that the Father is also Lord.
Second,
if "from whom are all things" speaks of the Father's absolute existence,
then it necessarily follows that "through whom are all things" speaks of the Son's absolute existence. Again, basic logic and sound reasoning.
Also, note that some theologians, such as N.T. Wright, see it as Paul's expansion of the Shema. Compare and note the context of 1 Cor 8:6:
Deu 6:4 “Hear, O Israel: The LORD our God, the LORD is one. (ESV)
1Co 8:4 Therefore, as to the eating of food offered to idols, we know that “an idol has no real existence,” and that “
there is no God but one.”
1Co 8:5 For although there may be so-called gods in heaven or on earth—as indeed there are many “gods” and many “lords”—
1Co 8:6 yet for us
there is one God, the Father, from whom are all things and for whom we exist, and
one Lord, Jesus Christ, through whom are all things and through whom we exist. (ESV)
Jesus does the same at John 4:22-24--he warns all other gods are false then names only the Father as the God searching for ones to worship him in spirit and truth. Jesus says there that is who the true followers will worship.
None of that precludes Jesus from also being God. From the very beginning to the very end of John's gospel, John makes it very clear that Jesus is divine, that he is truly God and truly man.
