I haven't read in detail yet, but having skimmed this thread quickly, I find that those objecting to eternal security are operating under a skewed understanding of what it is. I'll join the discussion when I've read the posts properly. For now, I'd like to just comment on this last post I saw -
felix said:
Is it POSSIBLE for a Christian who has faith in Jesus to fall away to lose salvation? Answer: Yes
I understand the theological grounds and the practical observations that influence this - and I'm not getting into a theological debate at all now. I'd like to address this more semantically - having no direct relevance to theology. Just a simple analysis of statements in the English language.
1. To fall away and lose salvation refers to ceasing to have faith in Jesus. Would you agree?
2. If you do agree, then the question actually is - Is it POSSIBLE for a Christian who has faith in Jesus to later, not have faith in Jesus?
Do you have any objections to this?
3. Now semantically, far removed from any direct theological reference, "faith" means to be
fully persuaded in one's mind regarding the truth of something. In case one needs a Biblical reference and not just a 'secular' reference, I could point to the whole context of Romans 14, and then specifically to v.5 there. Would you have any objections to this working definition of 'faith'?
4. If you're with me so far, the question now becomes - Is it POSSIBLE for a Christian who is fully persuaded in his mind regarding the truth in Jesus - to later, not be fully persuaded in his mind regarding the truth in Jesus?
5.a) To be
fully persuaded, again semantically, implies that you don't have any doubts regarding that which you're fully persuaded in ie you are persuaded of the truth against all other persuasions to the contrary. Any objections?
5.b) The above concludes that once you're 'fully persuaded' in something, you cannot become 'not fully persuaded' in that very thing - theoretically and semantically, this is an impossibility.
6. But we see this happening all round us - in fact, we ourselves would have felt a change in our own 'firm' convictions at some point in time. That still doesn't permit a logical impossibility - what we must then say to resolve this is that we were 'not
fully persuaded' back then - and that is to say "we didn't have faith back then".
So your question seems to break down because of semantic inconsistency and hence can never be answered. Of course, all this is very theoretical and a new model must be discussed to make sense of what happens practically out there - I'm merely attempting to show the boundaries that limit our conclusions.
I do acknowledge that I may have committed some error in assumption in the above treatment - I'd be glad to clarify/retract this when pointed out the problem areas. Also, I have dealt with this only on a semantic level and not on any Scriptural basis at all. To get into that, we must discuss and concur on what that truth is that we ought to believe, for us to be saved.