Ephesians 2:8 Salvation is by grace through faith in Jesus and not by works, which would make water baptism a work towards repentance. John said I must decrease and Jesus increase. John's water baptism was only for repentance as being prepared for the coming of the Lord as the water represented the washing away of sin, or as John put it "prepare ye the way of the Lord". It is not clear in scripture that Jesus ever baptized anyone in water even though He first came to John's water baptism as a fulfillment of prophecy as He had to identify with humanity even though He had no sin. This was the beginning of Christ ministry as the Holy Spirit fell down on Him that day as God gave Him full power and authority here on earth and there after Jesus went about teaching the disciples as it was not Jesus who the Pharisees heard that He baptized more than John did, John 4:1-3 but His disciples baptizing others in water for remission of sin after the death of John the Baptist as all together they would have baptized others in water for the remission of sin then John could at one time. Jesus could not baptize anyone in the Holy Spirit until the day of Pentecost after He ascended up to the Father and the Father sent down the indwelling Holy Spirit, Acts 2.
John 3:5 never mentions the word baptize, but says only by being born of water and spirit, which means water as living water (word of God) that no one can enter into the kingdom of God unless they are Spiritually renewed (born again) by the hearing of the word, which is Christ Jesus and by the Holy Spirit that came on them in the OT and indwells us in the NT. Many do read into the passage a preconceived idea or theology, but baptism is never mentioned in this verse. Word is living water as described in John 4:10; 7:38; 1 John 5:6; Jeremiah 2:13; Isaiah 55:1-3 to name a few.
If salvation came by actual immersion in water Jesus clearly could have simply stated, "Truly, truly, I say to you, unless one is baptized by being immersed in water and born of the Spirit, he cannot enter into the kingdom of God.” Further, if Jesus had made such a statement, He would have contradicted numerous other Bible passages that make it clear that salvation is by faith (John 3:16; John 3:36; Ephesians 2:8-9; Titus 3:5).
--The "not of works" eliminates works of merit and not obedience. If "not of works" eliminates
ALL works then that would contract the very next verse Eph 2:10 that
REQUIRES the Christian to do works. One cannot become a Christian but then have no good works, have no fruit and expect to be saved anyway, John 15:1-6. Therefore those good works are NECESSARY to be saved but they do not in anyway earn salvation but a necessary condition God has put upon His free gift of salvation. Also, how can one 'boast' about his obedience when no one's obedience is sinlessly perfect but will be flawed with sin?
--submitting to water baptism is something a person DOES but it earns nothing:
1) the healing of Naaman was by grace but God required Naaman dip in the river 7 times. The dipping was a condition God placed upon His gracious gift of healing therefore the work in dipping could not earn this free gracious gift. Likewise, submitting to baptism is just a condition God has placed upon His free gift of salvation and does not earn His free gift no more than Naaman's work in dipping earn God's free gift.
2) Some also do not understand, or do not want to understand, the difference between a man doing
GOD'S righteousness and man doing his
OWN righteousness. Again, Romans 10:3 has two different types of works in that one verse:
Work #1) establishing their
OWN righteousness (does not save)
Work #2) submitting/obeying
GOD's rightoeusness (does save)
Doing/obeying God's righteousness does not earn salvation but obeying is simply meeting the conditions God has placed upon His free gift of salvation.
When God says for a man to believe repent confess and be baptized and a man obeys/submits unto these things, then that man is doing
GOD'S righteousness. If man does something other than what God has said (as faith only), then that man is trying to save himself by his
OWN righteousness.
Those Jews in Romans 10:1-3 were lost for they were going about doing their
OWN righteousness (own traditions) and would not obey
GOD's righteousness in that they would not believe, would not confess, would not obey the gospel Romans 10:16 as God requires of men.
Note in Titus 3:5 how that washing of water (water baptism) is contrasted from "works of righteousness we have done" that is, works of self-righteousness. Hence submitting to water baptism is a matter of obeying GOD's righteousness and not a matter of man doing his OWN righteousness.
3) lastly, John 3:5 speaks of one birth consisting of two elements, water and Spirit. Nothing in this context shows that water means anything other than literal "water" or that "Spirit" means anything other than the literal Spirit. Water here refers to literal water baptism as can be seen a few verses later John 3:22-23.
The Bible being its own best commentary shows:
John 3:5--------Spirit++++++++++++
water>>>>>>>>in the kingdom
1 Cor 12:13-----Spirit+++++++++++
baptized>>>>>>>in the body
Titus 3:5--------Holy Ghost+++++
laver of water>>>>>>saved
All of these 'born again' verses contain the same two elements, Spirit and water. The role of water in the new birth is obviously water baptism. The role of the Spirit in the new birth is His word that instructs men on how to be saved (water baptism). So those that follow the Spirit's instructions in his word are said to be - born again by the word (1 Peter 1:23), - begat by the word (James 1:18).
Eph 2:8 -----faith>>>>>>>>>>saves
1 Pet 3:21---baptism>>>>>>>>saves
Since there is just one way to be saved, no alternatives, then NT faith includes baptism. It all fits together perfectly while Luther's "faith only" throws a wrench into it causing many contradictions among verses.