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Hell

Let’s look at one of the verses that is commonly used to prove the doctrine of never-ending punishment.
And the smoke of their torment ascendeth up for ever and ever; and they have no rest day nor night, who worship the beast and his image, and whosoever receiveth the mark of his name. (Rev. 14:11)

The Greek word translated “forever and ever†is the word “aion†(used twice). There are three problems with the way the King James translates this verse.

The problem is not with the KJV's translation of this verse but with your Mr. Eckerty attempting to put an end to the timeframe in this verse. First, it is not a word but it is a phrase- aionas ton aionon- which is translated forever and ever. Or more literally "ages of the ages". Here is the problem with his interpretation. This phrase-aionas ton aionon- is the EXACT WORDS AND PHRASE which describes the glory and honor due to our Lord.

to de basilei ton aionon aphtharto aorato mono theo time kai doxa eis tous AIONAS TON AIONON amen (1 Tim 1:17 Interlinear Bible)

So your Mr. Eckerty is faced with a dilema. If he feels that the smoke does not rise forever and ever (aionas ton aionon) then he must also say that our Lord is not due glory and honor for forever and ever (aionas ton aionon)
Westtexas
 
there is no one Greek word, that I am aware of, that can have two totally opposite meanings.

I agree and that is the point that Free and I have been trying to make. The SAME WORD is used for the duration of eternal life and eternal punishment.
kolasin aionion--eternal punishment
zoen aionion--eternal life
And the SAME WORDS AND PHRASE is used for the duration of the smoke which rises from hell and the duration of the glory and honor of our Lord Jesus Christ.
aionas ton aionon--forever and ever

They cannot have two totally opposite meanings simply because people do not like the concept of eternal punishment.
Westtexas
 
I am not so apt to look upon unbelievers who are for a fact blinded by the 'god of this world' as being alone and of themselves in the matters of unbelief, nor am I willing to say that God cannot at any time prior to the Lake of Fire judgment save any person or that God cannot at any time prior to death have a conversion process in place with anyone. None of these can be effectively and conclusively ruled out.

I do feel very comfortable in stating that the devil and his messengers will without any doubt find themselves in the midst of that Lake because we have ample evidence of that being a scriptural fact.
So, you "feel very comfortable in stating that the devil and his messengers will without any doubt find themselves in the midst of that Lake," based on what Scripture says, yet won't believe what Scripture also clearly states about unbelievers going into that same Lake? A little inconsistent, yes?
 
So, you "feel very comfortable in stating that the devil and his messengers will without any doubt find themselves in the midst of that Lake," based on what Scripture says, yet won't believe what Scripture also clearly states about unbelievers going into that same Lake? A little inconsistent, yes?

Maybe go back to my prior post on this matter and perhaps see the cause of unbelief and see therein that man is not alone in this matter. If there is no accounting for all the parties involved...what can I say. I prefer to see them all, even if they are unseen.
 
The problem is not with the KJV's translation of this verse but with your Mr. Eckerty attempting to put an end to the timeframe in this verse. First, it is not a word but it is a phrase- aionas ton aionon- which is translated forever and ever. Or more literally "ages of the ages". Here is the problem with his interpretation. This phrase-aionas ton aionon- is the EXACT WORDS AND PHRASE which describes the glory and honor due to our Lord.

to de basilei ton aionon aphtharto aorato mono theo time kai doxa eis tous AIONAS TON AIONON amen (1 Tim 1:17 Interlinear Bible)

So your Mr. Eckerty is faced with a dilema. If he feels that the smoke does not rise forever and ever (aionas ton aionon) then he must also say that our Lord is not due glory and honor for forever and ever (aionas ton aionon)
Westtexas

Timothy 1:17 (Young's Literal Translation)

17and to the King of the ages, the incorruptible, invisible, only wise God, [is] honour and glory -- to the ages of the ages! Amen.

As it should be translated. Bubba
 
Timothy 1:17 (Young's Literal Translation)

17and to the King of the ages, the incorruptible, invisible, only wise God, [is] honour and glory -- to the ages of the ages! Amen.

As it should be translated. Bubba

I agree with this translation also but I think your missing the point. Regardless whether you care to translate this phrase as "to the ages of the ages" or "forever and ever", the same phrase and the SAME WORDS are used for the duration of the smoke which rises from hell and the honour and glory of our Lord. You said yourself in your post that Greek words cannot have two different meanings for the same word, which I also agree with. The point is that the duration of our Lord's glory and the duration of hell ARE THE SAME. If you translate hell to someday end than you must also agree that the glory and honour of our Lord will someday come to an end. I am sure that you will not say that you feel that it is the case that His glory will end, correct? The only other conclusion is that both will be "forever and ever", "to the ages of the ages", "aionas ton aionon". You can't have it both ways.

Westtexas
 
The Hebrew word "sheol" always means "grave" and never "hell." Hell is a Pagan belief. Hell was introduced into scriptures by the Catholics who canonized scriptures. NIV: Psalm 9:17. The wicked return to the grave, all the nations that forget God.
 
I agree with this translation also but I think your missing the point. Regardless whether you care to translate this phrase as "to the ages of the ages" or "forever and ever", the same phrase and the SAME WORDS are used for the duration of the smoke which rises from hell and the honour and glory of our Lord. You said yourself in your post that Greek words cannot have two different meanings for the same word, which I also agree with. The point is that the duration of our Lord's glory and the duration of hell ARE THE SAME. If you translate hell to someday end than you must also agree that the glory and honour of our Lord will someday come to an end. I am sure that you will not say that you feel that it is the case that His glory will end, correct? The only other conclusion is that both will be "forever and ever", "to the ages of the ages", "aionas ton aionon". You can't have it both ways.

Westtexas

With the word "aion" the subject will dictate the meaning when referring to God, who is the "King of the ages…" and is eternal and in whom we receive life eternal. Instead of reinventing the wheel, I will again quote from Eckerty who answered the argument put forth in regards to Mt. 45:46:

"To address Mr. …….. accusation that we are somehow limiting the life of God by our translation of the word “aionios,†we most confidently declare that God’s life never had a beginning, nor will have an end. This life can be found nowhere except in God. This life fills both time and eternity. It existed before the ages (1 Cor. 2:7), and it will continue after the ages (1 Cor. 15:28 ). God is eternal (Rom. 1:20--Gk. word “aidiosâ€), indissoluble (Heb. 7:16), and immortal (1 Tim. 6:16), and therefore, His life is also eternal, indissoluble, and immortal.

Man, on the other hand, is both temporal and mortal. He is not born with this God-life. The Bible says, “Only God hath immortality.†(1 Tim. 6:16) Man exists wholly in the realm of time (ages). He has never known anything but the realm of time. He lives and he dies. He is born and goes back to the dust whence he came. So when God imparts His life, it is imparted to mortal man who is “aionian.†In other words, man has been given life which pertains to the ages. This does not mean that the essence of God’s life is somehow temporary (or that God is temporary), it simply means that the life of God is imparted to man who is bound to the ages and who is NOT immortal. The ancient Egyptian and Greek teaching that says that man has an immortal soul (now embraced by the Church) is not scriptural. The only reason man has any life at all is because God (who is life) chooses to impart it to His creatures.

When the Bible speaks of the “aionian God†(1 Tim. 1:17), it does not mean that God is less than eternal. It simply means that He manifests Himself within the framework of time. That which is seen is temporal; that which is unseen is eternal. When the Bible says that God is “aionian,†it means He is “aionian†in the sense that He can move and manifest Himself in the realm of sight. When the Bible speaks of the “eternal†God (Rom. 1:20), this means that God transcends all time, and He manifests Himself in that which is unseen. God is the only One who can exist in both the state of time and timelessness. Jesus, after His resurrection, possessed the fullness of God’s life allowing Him to manifest Himself in both the “aionian†realm (when He showed Himself to the disciples) and the “eternal†realm (being with the Father). "

Bubba
 
With the word "aion" the subject will dictate the meaning when referring to God, who is the "King of the ages…" and is eternal and in whom we receive life eternal. Instead of reinventing the wheel, I will again quote from Eckerty who answered the argument put forth in regards to Mt. 45:46:

"To address Mr. …….. accusation that we are somehow limiting the life of God by our translation of the word “aionios,†we most confidently declare that God’s life never had a beginning, nor will have an end. This life can be found nowhere except in God. This life fills both time and eternity. It existed before the ages (1 Cor. 2:7), and it will continue after the ages (1 Cor. 15:28 ). God is eternal (Rom. 1:20--Gk. word “aidiosâ€), indissoluble (Heb. 7:16), and immortal (1 Tim. 6:16), and therefore, His life is also eternal, indissoluble, and immortal.

Man, on the other hand, is both temporal and mortal. He is not born with this God-life. The Bible says, “Only God hath immortality.†(1 Tim. 6:16) Man exists wholly in the realm of time (ages). He has never known anything but the realm of time. He lives and he dies. He is born and goes back to the dust whence he came. So when God imparts His life, it is imparted to mortal man who is “aionian.†In other words, man has been given life which pertains to the ages. This does not mean that the essence of God’s life is somehow temporary (or that God is temporary), it simply means that the life of God is imparted to man who is bound to the ages and who is NOT immortal. The ancient Egyptian and Greek teaching that says that man has an immortal soul (now embraced by the Church) is not scriptural. The only reason man has any life at all is because God (who is life) chooses to impart it to His creatures.

When the Bible speaks of the “aionian God†(1 Tim. 1:17), it does not mean that God is less than eternal. It simply means that He manifests Himself within the framework of time. That which is seen is temporal; that which is unseen is eternal. When the Bible says that God is “aionian,†it means He is “aionian†in the sense that He can move and manifest Himself in the realm of sight. When the Bible speaks of the “eternal†God (Rom. 1:20), this means that God transcends all time, and He manifests Himself in that which is unseen. God is the only One who can exist in both the state of time and timelessness. Jesus, after His resurrection, possessed the fullness of God’s life allowing Him to manifest Himself in both the “aionian†realm (when He showed Himself to the disciples) and the “eternal†realm (being with the Father). "

Bubba
I would seriously question how the same word, used in the same way in the same verse, can end up with two very different meanings. To me that seems to go against all principals of biblical interpretation and serves only to show one's bias.
 
I would seriously question how the same word, used in the same way in the same verse, can end up with two very different meanings. To me that seems to go against all principals of biblical interpretation and serves only to show one's bias.

Free,
The bias is upon those who would try to make "aion" and its adjectives something other than a period of time (age). Westtexas brought up 1Tim. 1:17 and the literal translation is still "ages to ages" though the verse is speaking about God. I am not arguing that God is eternal, only that the word "aion" means age.
 
Free,
The bias is upon those who would try to make "aion" and its adjectives something other than a period of time (age). Westtexas brought up 1Tim. 1:17 and the literal translation is still "ages to ages" though the verse is speaking about God. I am not arguing that God is eternal, only that the word "aion" means age.
The bias is in Matt 45:46 where the same word, used in the same sense withing the same verse, has two different meanings. The end result is that either there is an eternal hell and eternal life or temporary hell and temporary life. How one defines "aion" is irrelevant to the point being made.
 
The bias is in Matt 45:46 where the same word, used in the same sense withing the same verse, has two different meanings. The end result is that either there is an eternal hell and eternal life or temporary hell and temporary life. How one defines "aion" is irrelevant to the point being made.

As I told Smaller, the whole context of the passage (Mt 25:46) is in my understanding about unbelieving Jews and those who did believe prior to 70 A.D., one group was to go into an "age" of punishment, the other would go into a "age" of life in the Kingdom of God through Christ. Kingdom life is experienced presently and future for us as Christians, no different than those in the first century. It amazes me the difficulties that arise to the orthodox view of Hell when this parable is analyzed in context, yet it is their pillar verse for eternal punishment.
Bubba
 
As I told Smaller, the whole context of the passage (Mt 25:46) is in my understanding about unbelieving Jews and those who did believe prior to 70 A.D., one group was to go into an "age" of punishment, the other would go into a "age" of life in the Kingdom of God through Christ.

And as I thusly noted the 'devil and his messengers are included in that scripture set, and hence my question (yet unaddressed) is, what happens to them once into the Lake of Fire along with the power of death...which will be the total end for same.

As to your view of 'unbelieving Jews' that cannot possibly be correct because every last one of us have 'goat works' and more than likely every last one of us also have sheep works as well, believer or unbeliever. The notion that set is just to unbelieving Jews when the devil and his messengers are dragged into that text set either makes your understanding that those unbelieving Jews are the devil and his messengers OR that the devil and his messengers are a separate entity class that will be sent to the fire along with unbelieving Jews. So there is plenty of room for clarifications on your part to get to where you think you see. I have questioned myself on these matters quite thoroughly, and have landed on the devil and his messengers being a totally separate entity class than any of mankind, even though they occupy the same 'flesh/mind' as mankind and totally separated from mankind and totally destroyed at the events of Matt. 25.

Kingdom life is experienced presently and future for us as Christians, no different than those in the first century. It amazes me the difficulties that arise to the orthodox view of Hell when this parable is analyzed in context, yet it is their pillar verse for eternal punishment.
Bubba

There is no way to avoid bringing forth your views on the devil and his messengers therein. Whatever you do for them, you do for the people you put in with them. IF you put Satanic salvation on the table for them or make them the same as mankind your position has serious issues to address on several fronts that will show a contrary position for 'them.'

s
 
As I told Smaller, the whole context of the passage (Mt 25:46) is in my understanding about unbelieving Jews and those who did believe prior to 70 A.D., one group was to go into an "age" of punishment, the other would go into a "age" of life in the Kingdom of God through Christ. Kingdom life is experienced presently and future for us as Christians, no different than those in the first century. It amazes me the difficulties that arise to the orthodox view of Hell when this parable is analyzed in context, yet it is their pillar verse for eternal punishment.
Bubba
Let's look at the "whole context of the passage" then:

Matt 25:31-32, 31 "When the Son of Man comes in his glory, and all the angels with him, then he will sit on his glorious throne. 32 Before him will be gathered all the nations, and he will separate people one from another as a shepherd separates the sheep from the goats.

Clearly this is speaking of the final judgment, at Christ's return. There are no difficulties.
 
The Hebrew word "sheol" always means "grave" and never "hell." Hell is a Pagan belief. Hell was introduced into scriptures by the Catholics who canonized scriptures. NIV: Psalm 9:17. The wicked return to the grave, all the nations that forget God.

Wrong...on both accounts....

Provide evidence, or else don't make blanket statements
 
Smaller and Free,
I am a partial Preterist who leans towards Full Preterism (I leave room that Jesus may indeed come physically and that there will be a new heaven and earth), and I am also a Universalist. Being a Universalist, the Lake of Fire “prepared for the Devil and his messegers...” is a purification process, thus a future fulfillment of Col.1:20. Both these positions are not allowed on this forum. I will present this commentary in the hopes that the moderators will show grace.
Bubba
Judgment in the Olivet Discourse
“Now, this is very interesting. On hearing this ominous prophecy, the disciples ask an important question: “…When will this happen, and what will be the sign of your coming and of the end of the age?” As I stated above, the following verses until the end of chapter 25 is entirely unbroken narrative. Can there be any doubt that this entire passage is related to the same time of the “end” and the same “coming”? Or did Jesus just decide to change the subject to another “coming” mid-stream to make things interesting?
Watch this: 24:30-31 and 33-34 read, “At that time the sign of the Son of Man will appear in the sky, and all the nations of the earth will mourn. They will see the Son of Man coming on the clouds of the sky, with power and great glory. And he will send his angels with a loud trumpet call, and they will gather his elect from the four winds, from one end of the heavens to the other…Even so, when you see all these things, you know that it is near, right at the door. I tell you the truth, this generation will certainly not pass away until all these things have happened.”
At the end of chapter 25, Jesus launches into the Parable of the Sheep and the Goats. Let’s look at it here:
When the Son of Man comes in his glory, and all the angels with him, he will sit on his throne in heavenly glory. All the nations will be gathered before him, and he will separate the people one from another as a shepherd separates the sheep from the goats. He will put the sheep on his right and the goats on his left. Then the King will say to those on his right, “Come, you who are blessed by my Father; take your inheritance, the kingdom prepared for you since the creation of the world.” Matthew 25:31-34 NIV
Is this the same event? I believe it’s clear that it is. Notice the parallels:
1. “The Son of Man” comes “with great glory” (24:30), “in his glory” (25:31)
2. Angels accompany Him
3. The nations are called into account (24:30) and (25:32)
4. Separation is made between the righteous and unrighteous (24:31, 25:32)
Please tell me you can see that these are the same event! If so, and if the first was to occur before that generation passed away, the second one must have as well. This means that the judgment of the nations is not a future apocalyptic event at some postulated close of human history. Rather this was what happened when the dead were raised, some to a resurrection of life and the others to a resurrection of judgment (John 5:29; cf. Daniel 12:2). This is the judgment of the living and dead that Paul said was “about to” occur in 2 Timothy 4:1.
This judgment was to coincide with the coming of the Son of Man on the clouds (cf. Matt 24:30) depicted in 1 Thessalonians 4, which also describes the Resurrection of the Dead. Hades/Sheol (the holding grounds of the dead awaiting judgment) is no more: those who die from now on do not wait for judgment because Sheol was thrown into the Lake of Fire after all its denizens left it to stand before the Great White Throne for judgment (Rev. 20:11-15). Notice that only a preterist who believes that Sheol has been destroyed can claim that a soul receives its reward or judgment immediately upon death. This is why the voice from heaven told John in the midst of a chapter describing the reign of the living and resurrected saints, “Write: Blessed are the dead that die in the Lord from now on. ‘Yes,’ says the Spirit, ‘they will rest from their labor, for their deeds will follow them.’” (Rev. 14:13)
 
Smaller and Free,
I am a partial Preterist who leans towards Full Preterism (I leave room that Jesus may indeed come physically and that there will be a new heaven and earth), and I am also a Universalist. Being a Universalist, the Lake of Fire “prepared for the Devil and his messegers...” is a purification process, thus a future fulfillment of Col.1:20. Both these positions are not allowed on this forum. I will present this commentary in the hopes that the moderators will show grace.

Yeah, I kinda figured the position you held was 'satanic salvation.' I just can't get there and I doubt many could. I mean really, not one single text that specifies SALVATION for them relegates that position to a personal fantasy imho. The position that people are devils and there are no other entities as devils/satan (as an alternative) is not possible either. IF either of these positions were available OTHER THAN in the personal fantasy realm you'd have a basis of reasoning.

Judgment in the Olivet Discourse
“Now, this is very interesting. On hearing this ominous prophecy, the disciples ask an important question: “…When will this happen, and what will be the sign of your coming and of the end of the age?” As I stated above, the following verses until the end of chapter 25 is entirely unbroken narrative. Can there be any doubt that this entire passage is related to the same time of the “end” and the same “coming”? Or did Jesus just decide to change the subject to another “coming” mid-stream to make things interesting?

I don't discount the timing of that event and the possibility of various, perhaps even multiple timing workings and methodologies. Example? Jesus has a statement about the evil spirit departing a man and that being wandering a 'dry place' seeking rest could in some ways be viewed as connected to the Matt. 25 scripture set. I do think that the gathering process will or is going on in various ways as well. But the 'separation' event, one working from another, makes it unique and an 'end' of 'goat works.'

Watch this: 24:30-31 and 33-34 read, “At that time the sign of the Son of Man will appear in the sky, and all the nations of the earth will mourn. They will see the Son of Man coming on the clouds of the sky, with power and great glory. And he will send his angels with a loud trumpet call, and they will gather his elect from the four winds, from one end of the heavens to the other…Even so, when you see all these things, you know that it is near, right at the door. I tell you the truth, this generation will certainly not pass away until all these things have happened.”
At the end of chapter 25, Jesus launches into the Parable of the Sheep and the Goats. Let’s look at it here:
When the Son of Man comes in his glory, and all the angels with him, he will sit on his throne in heavenly glory. All the nations will be gathered before him, and he will separate the people one from another as a shepherd separates the sheep from the goats. He will put the sheep on his right and the goats on his left. Then the King will say to those on his right, “Come, you who are blessed by my Father; take your inheritance, the kingdom prepared for you since the creation of the world.” Matthew 25:31-34 NIV

Sorry, the NIV has butchered that set. That translation was written by blindmen imho.

Compare:

32 And before him shall be gathered all nations: and he shall separate them one from another, as a shepherd divideth his sheep from the goats:
33 And he shall set the sheep on his right hand, but the goats on the left.

Do you see the term 'people' anywhere? No. It was a blatant and quite stupid alteration. That's what these re-writes have done. They have altered the text to suit their own blind views, many of which cannot be supported from the texts they were translated from.

I'd bank that before long a whole generation of personal fantasy Bible texts will be available.

Is this the same event? I believe it’s clear that it is. Notice the parallels:
1. “The Son of Man” comes “with great glory” (24:30), “in his glory” (25:31)

Little clues like 'before Him' (referring to the gathering of the nations) means that the gathering itself could be taking place over an extended period of time.
2. Angels accompany Him

All of them would indicate a fairly dynamic event.
3. The nations are called into account (24:30) and (25:32)
4. Separation is made between the righteous and unrighteous (24:31, 25:32)
Please tell me you can see that these are the same event! If so, and if the first was to occur before that generation passed away, the second one must have as well.

Sorry. We are going to divert greatly if you insist on the preterist views, which are imho and again nearly blind understandings. NO, Jesus has NOT COME in the FULL way described in Matt. 25. The goat works and the sheep works continue to be MIXED in the work of ALL people. Believers and unbelievers do BOTH works presently.

And to see that generation as only people alive at X time is assuredly NOT the only possible view of the identity of that generation.

This means that the judgment of the nations is not a future apocalyptic event at some postulated close of human history. Rather this was what happened when the dead were raised, some to a resurrection of life and the others to a resurrection of judgment (John 5:29; cf. Daniel 12:2). This is the judgment of the living and dead that Paul said was “about to” occur in 2 Timothy 4:1.
This judgment was to coincide with the coming of the Son of Man on the clouds (cf. Matt 24:30) depicted in 1 Thessalonians 4, which also describes the Resurrection of the Dead. Hades/Sheol (the holding grounds of the dead awaiting judgment) is no more:

I'm going to cut to the chase of this matter with one HUGE HOLE in your theories. We know for a fact that the DEVIL and his MESSENGERS are a part of that event. Where is your accounting for THEIR WORKINGS, THEIR NATIONS??? Why the insistence that the event concerns ONLY PEOPLE and PEOPLE nations?

UNLESS you make PEOPLE devils your view has no accounting for THE NATIONS OF DEVILS or of THEIR generation.

I parted company with 'visiting' with many so called 'universalists' because they have fallen HEADLONG into the position of 'there is no Satan but MANKIND.' And some will go so far as to say because there are no separate entity classes that are NOT mankind but are SATAN and DEVILS as 'their own kind' they even make Jesus talking to HIMSELF as SATAN in the desert temptation.

To me that understanding is not only false, it is a big fat blind LIE. Jesus was NOT talking to 'whatever' form of His Own Nature as SATAN. That never happened. And pity the fool who tries to reason with them. Those oh so loving universalists are just as viscious as anyone else when you call that understanding BLINDLY NAKED. And they wonder why they can not be taken seriously?

Seriously.

The understanding that PEOPLE are DEVILS is patently false. And Jesus was NOT SATAN.

When you start dissecting texts with that as your basis you ARE going to get down an unsupportable RAT hole, doctrinally speaking, on so many fronts I can't begin to count them. So maybe to support where you are you could clarify this matter and then, if the above is what you hold, you are barking up the wrong tree.

You need to convince that DEVILS change into GODS CHILDREN or that God had DEMONIC CHILDREN. I have not seen THE SALVATION OF DEVILS in any text, period. And I have NOT seen them change into children of God other than as POSERS who have OVER LAID themselves onto MINISTERS of RIGHTEOUSNESS.

Devils DO operate WITH mankind. Of this there is no doubt. BUT this does NOT make these 'entities' the SAME nor is there really any cause to make that effort of making them the same. I seriously question that effort as an effort/work of DEVILS in 'christian people' who are seriously ignorant when they take that track.

those who die from now on do not wait for judgment because Sheol was thrown into the Lake of Fire after all its denizens left it to stand before the Great White Throne for judgment (Rev. 20:11-15). Notice that only a preterist who believes that Sheol has been destroyed can claim that a soul receives its reward or judgment immediately upon death. This is why the voice from heaven told John in the midst of a chapter describing the reign of the living and resurrected saints, “Write: Blessed are the dead that die in the Lord from now on. ‘Yes,’ says the Spirit, ‘they will rest from their labor, for their deeds will follow them.’” (Rev. 14:13)

Uh, no, the Lake of Fire event has not yet transpired. And goat works and sheep works continue to be done IN ALL people.

enjoy!

smaller
 
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Smaller
In respect to the Olivet Discourse there are so many verses in the gospels and epistles that imply an imminent judgment and return of Jesus, one would think, there would be tolerance of other possibilities other than a futuristic paradigm.
In regards to “Satanic salvation†there is a good possibility that Satan is not an angel, but a creature created evil from the very beginning (John 8:44, 1John 3:8; Isa. 14 and Ezek. 28 are about the Kings of Babylon and Tyre). And he like death, Hades, sin and etc will simply cease to exist after experiencing the “Lake of Fireâ€. If Satan is pure evil, what would be left after all that is not of God is removed? If not a being of pure evil, then he would fit into Col. 1:20.
Bubba
 
Smaller
In respect to the Olivet Discourse there are so many verses in the gospels and epistles that imply an imminent judgment and return of Jesus, one would think, there would be tolerance of other possibilities other than a futuristic paradigm.

I see a multitude of various separations going on and that have been going on from day 1 of Adam. I believe most of the 'separation' events in a myriad of forms throughout the text is a larger theme of the separation of good from evil and as so noted to have the finality of Matt. 25.

But as I pointed out in your understanding, whatever form of punishment you put upon unbelieving Jews is the SAME punishment as the one for the devil and his messengers. My view is that the devil and his messengers will for no uncertainty find their entire lot in the Lake of Fire at that point and 'their workings' will come to a COMPLETE and FINAL 'forever and ever' ending, NEVER to be seen or heard from again along with the power of DEATH.

So there is no reprieve from that finality. And if unbelieving Jews 'go there' (which view is non-existing in scripture) then that same fate would await them, which fate I do not and can not accept, primarily on the basis of a directly contrary position presented in Romans 11:25-32 regarding them and all who are likewise bound with disobedience. (all mankind.)

In regards to “Satanic salvation†there is a good possibility that Satan is not an angel, but a creature created evil from the very beginning (John 8:44, 1John 3:8; Isa. 14 and Ezek. 28 are about the Kings of Babylon and Tyre).

Well, Satan and devils can without any doubt be 'evil' messengers. And I agree with that entity class being such from their beginning. I do not however see that class of being as being the SAME AS MAN, though that entity class is CLEARLY shown in the N.T. to be with and upon MAN. Very few theologians have a grip on this matter in their various dissections. And they DON'T because that same working is for a fact UPON THEM as well. We all have sin and every sin is securely connected to the DEVIL in 1 John 3:8 and in a myriad of other texts.
And he like death, Hades, sin and etc will simply cease to exist after experiencing the “Lake of Fireâ€.

Ah, again we agree. Good. See how easy that is...:lol

My point in that matter is that many 'universalists' take the Lake of Fire to be a 'changing event' when it's clearly a DESTRUCTION/FINALITY/PERMANENT CONTAINMENT event.

I have come to my own personal fantasy about the Lake of Fire being a form of ANTI-HEAVEN for ANTI-CHRIST spirits. (it makes me feel better for their fate..:lol )

If Satan is pure evil, what would be left after all that is not of God is removed? If not a being of pure evil, then he would fit into Col. 1:20.
Bubba

Ya know, I've seen universalists try to get Satan and his messengers into Col. 1:20. Were there not many specific exception texts that deny that I could at least think about it. But there can be reconciliation of sin, evil, death, satan, devils UNTO destruction. I certainly can RECONCILE many things to complete FINALITY. Can you? Reconciliation can very much mean agreeing with the texts, not imposing salvation. The reconciliation of all things can simply mean that all things will be finally set as God Intended them.

The power of death and it's use by God will be reconciled AS JUST, HOLY AND PERFECT as well as his uses for same and that POWER WILL END. That is reconciliation with the facts.

I would like to see an outright statement from you that says Satan and his messengers are NOT the same as people or as Jesus (in whatever form) but are a SEPARATE entity class than mankind, just for clarifications. (about the 3rd request)

enjoy!

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