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How can the trinity be one God?

Butch5 said:
The NAS says He did not think equality with God was something to be grasped.

OK, you agree that Jesus wasn't in the form of God when He made that statement. So how then are there three coequal persons?
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Stripping Himself of the "form of God" and taking on the "form of a servant" while on earth does not mean He was not God, He was God in the flesh. Thomas declared Jesus to be "my Lord and my God", Jn.20:28. Jesus accepted that confession with no negative comment. If He accepted that confession not being God He was the greatest deceiver the world has known.
 
billybalke said:
Stripping Himself of the "form of God" and taking on the "form of a servant" while on earth does not mean He was not God, He was God in the flesh. Thomas declared Jesus to be "my Lord and my God", Jn.20:28. Jesus accepted that confession with no negative comment. If He accepted that confession not being God He was the greatest deceiver the world has known.
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That doesn't change anything. He said, 'the Father is greater than I'. How then are there three coequal persons?
 
Butch5 said:
That doesn't change anything. He said, 'the Father is greater than I'. How then are there three coequal persons?
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Butch5 said:
That doesn't change anything. He said, 'the Father is greater than I'. How then are there three coequal persons?
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Butch5 said:
That doesn't change anything. He said, 'the Father is greater than I'. How then are there three coequal persons?
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Yes it does. He was in the form of a servant. Please answer Jn.20:28.
 
Butch5 said:
He is in the form of a servant, not was.
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Jesus has not been in the "form of a servant" since His resurrection. While in the form of a servant He did not relinquish His diety. Do you have any plans to answer Jn.20:28?? I have other facts to present.
 
billybalke said:
Jesus has not been in the "form of a servant" since His resurrection. While in the form of a servant He did not relinquish His diety. Do you have any plans to answer Jn.20:28?? I have other facts to present.
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Yeah, He has. There's nothing in Scripture that says there was any change in Him. John writing about 60 years after the resurrection indicates that Jesus was still in the flesh at that time. So, He was still in the form of a servant even then. He was in the same form that He was in when He made the statement. So, the question still remains, if the Father is greater how are they equal?

There's nothing to answer about John 20. The word God is a title. Just like the word president or king. They are simply titles.
 
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Butch5 said:
Yeah, He has. There's nothing in Scripture that says there was any change in Him. John writing about 60 years after the resurrection indicates that Jesus was still in the flesh at that time. So, He was still in the form of a servant even then. He was in the same form that He was in when He made the statement. So, the question still remains, if the Father is greater how are they equal?

There's nothing to answer about John 20. The word God is a title. Just like the word president or king. They are simply titles.
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I suppose you refer to I Jn.4. However it does not say Jesus is still in the flesh. The ASV says "has come" not "is in the flesh". Jesus "has come" in the flesh when born of Mary. You have no scripture to prove He is yet in flesh. I invite you to try.

As for Jn.20:28 you strain at your attempt. Regardless of what you claim, Jesus accepted the declaration of Thomas that He was God. He didn't deny it. Jesus had the wonderful teaching opportunity to say in effect "Thomas I am not God", but He didn't, much to your dismay.
 
billybalke said:
I suppose you refer to I Jn.4. However it does not say Jesus is still in the flesh. The ASV says "has come" not "is in the flesh". Jesus "has come" in the flesh when born of Mary. You have no scripture to prove He is yet in flesh. I invite you to try.

As for Jn.20:28 you strain at your attempt. Regardless of what you claim, Jesus accepted the declaration of Thomas that He was God. He didn't deny it. Jesus had the wonderful teaching opportunity to say in effect "Thomas I am not God", but He didn't, much to your dismay.
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John said that Jesus has come in the flesh. The word translated, has come, is in the perfect tense. The Greek perfect tense indicates a past action whose results continue to the present. In this case the present was when John wrote his letter. This indicates that Jesus was still in the flesh when John wrote his letter.

He didn't be because He is Deity, just as the Father is Deity. However, the word God is title. Baal and Mollech are called gods too, however, I don't think you would say they were part of the Trinity. They were each a god of the pagans. Jehovah is the God of the Jews and Christians. The title god just means deity. The Greeks had their gods and the Christians had their God. One reason people get this mixed up is because people only seem to apply this word to Jehovah as if it was His name. It's not His name, it's His title.

Christians often say there is one God, however, Paul said there are many gods. How can there be one God and many gods unless the word is a title and not an individual?
 
Butch5 said:
John said that Jesus has come in the flesh. The word translated, has come, is in the perfect tense. The Greek perfect tense indicates a past action whose results continue to the present. In this case the present was when John wrote his letter. This indicates that Jesus was still in the flesh when John wrote his letter.

He didn't be because He is Deity, just as the Father is Deity. However, the word God is title. Baal and Mollech are called gods too, however, I don't think you would say they were part of the Trinity. They were each a god of the pagans. Jehovah is the God of the Jews and Christians. The title god just means deity. The Greeks had their gods and the Christians had their God. One reason people get this mixed up is because people only seem to apply this word to Jehovah as if it was His name. It's not His name, it's His title.

Christians often say there is one God, however, Paul said there are many gods. How can there be one God and many gods unless the word is a title and not an individual?
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I shall ask you one question, where was Jesus when John wrote I John?
 
Captain Falcon said:
I'm not understanding how the trinity can be one God. How can three divine persons with three divine minds and three divine wills be one God? The Bible says that the Messiah must fear God. Jesus demonstrated this when he said the Father is greater than he is. How does that fit in with trinitarian theology? Thank you.
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There are not three separate wills or minds. Jesus said He and the Father are one. This is a significant point, not to be overlooked.
 
Butch5 said:
John said that Jesus has come in the flesh. The word translated, has come, is in the perfect tense. The Greek perfect tense indicates a past action whose results continue to the present. In this case the present was when John wrote his letter. This indicates that Jesus was still in the flesh when John wrote his letter.

He didn't be because He is Deity, just as the Father is Deity. However, the word God is title. Baal and Mollech are called gods too, however, I don't think you would say they were part of the Trinity. They were each a god of the pagans. Jehovah is the God of the Jews and Christians. The title god just means deity. The Greeks had their gods and the Christians had their God. One reason people get this mixed up is because people only seem to apply this word to Jehovah as if it was His name. It's not His name, it's His title.

Christians often say there is one God, however, Paul said there are many gods. How can there be one God and many gods unless the word is a title and not an individual?
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There are many gods (from our imagination) however, there is only one true and living God.

Exodus 20:2-5 ESV
“I am the Lord your God, who brought you out of the land of Egypt, out of the house of slavery. “You shall have no other gods before me. “You shall not make for yourself a carved image, or any likeness of anything that is in heaven above, or that is in the earth beneath, or that is in the water under the earth. You shall not bow down to them or serve them,..."

Jeremiah 10:10 ESV
But the Lord is the true God;
he is the living God and the everlasting King.
At his wrath the earth quakes,
and the nations cannot endure his indignation.

Jeremiah 10:12 ESV
It is he who made the earth by his power,
who established the world by his wisdom,
and by his understanding stretched out the heavens.

Isaiah 43:10 ESV
“You are my witnesses,” declares the Lord,
“and my servant whom I have chosen,
that you may know and believe me
and understand that I am he.
Before me no god was formed,
nor shall there be any after me."

Deuteronomy 4:35 ESV
To you it was shown, that you might know that the Lord is God; there is no other besides him.

Isaiah 46:9 ESV
remember the former things of old;
for I am God, and there is no other;
I am God, and there is none like me,
 
The original word for God is Elohim and is found in the ancient Akkadian writings which predates the bible, as well as the word El.

El was the head diety and is in the singular. When spoken of within the pantheon, El is addressed as Elohiem, which is plural to denote him as the sovereign ruler of the pantheon.

Deuteronomy 6:4. Hear o Israel, the Lord (YHVH) our God (Elohiem) is one.

I would like to point out three things here.
1. God the Fathers name = YHVH which is singular.
2. God = Elohiem which is plural and denotes a title. It funnels many into one.
3. One = unity and harmony.

When we look at this verse within this framework, it opens the door to properly express the Trinity.
 
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18 Therefore the Jews sought the more to kill him, because he not only had broken the sabbath, but said also that God was his Father, making himself equal with God.
John 5:18

again


6 Who, being in the form of God, thought it not robbery to be equal with God:

7 But made himself of no reputation, and took upon him the form of a servant, and was made in the likeness of men:
Philippians 2::6/7



JLB
 
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To the Christian there is one God. I just don't think a lot of people understand what that means.
 
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StoveBolts said:
You are correct when you say the word God is more of a title. The original word for God is Elohim and is found in the ancient Akkadian writings which predates the bible, as well as the word El.

El was the head diety and is in the singular. When spoken of within the pantheon, El is addressed as Elohiem, which is plural to denote him as the sovereign ruler of the pantheon.

Deuteronomy 6:4. Hear o Israel, the Lord (YHVH) our God (Elohiem) is one.

I would like to point out three things here.
1. God the Fathers name = YHVH which is singular.
2. God = Elohiem which is plural and denotes a title. It funnels many into one.
3. One = unity and harmony.

When we look at this verse within this framework, it opens the door to properly express the Trinity.

Now, I cannot prove anything to you, nor do I want to prove anything. Actually, we are shifting this forum away from debate and toward healthy theological discussion.

I would enjoy discussing this further with you, but we will not debate.
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Sure.
 
Butch5 said:
He was seated next to the Father. I'm not sure what this has to do with what we're discussing.
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It has everything to do with our discussion. You have said that according to the present active indicative in I Jn.4:2 that Jesus was still in the flesh. However, I Cor.15:50 reads: "Now this I say, brethren, that flesh and blood cannot inherit the kingdom of God;" Yes indeed, Jesus was in heaven at the time I John was written but not in the flesh. I probably will have a bit to say about the present active indicative in I Jn.4 later.

TO BE DEEP IN SCRIPTURE IS TO CEASE BEING CATHOLIC, PROTESTANT, JEW AND CALVINIST
 
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