A
AHIMSA
Guest
Answer: The KJV translators translated "almah" as "virgin" because that's what it means in the text. Here's why:
First of all, it would not be a "sign" if it said "a young woman will bring forth a child". It's no miracle for a woman to have a baby.
Second, in Matthew 1:23, the Jewish writer Matthew tells us what the prophet said. Writing in Greek, he quoted the Hebrew prophet using a Greek word that can only mean "virgin." I am certain that an apostle of the Lord Jesus Christ, a chosen one of God the Son, inspired by the Holy Ghost, who spoke Hebrew as his native language, would know whether the Hebrew word "almah" should mean "young woman," or what he says, "virgin" (parthenos)."
This is a terrible argument! Their very first point is that if the Isaiah propehcy isn't true, then Christianity would lack being miraculous, which casts shadow on the faith. They, on the outset, assume that the virgin birth is true and then work their conclusion from there...not evern remotely scholarly.
There is absolutely no argument here, it only says "I am certain that an apostle of Jesus would know the Hebrew word "almah" means young woman."
No evidence is presented, it completely overlooks the facts, and functions on the authors hopes that this problem will just go away.
Matthew, when writing the gospel, did not use the Hebrew Bible. He used a Greek translation of the Hebrew Bible, a translation which renders the Hebrew world "almah" (young woman) to mean "parthenos" (virgin). This was a mistake! When early Christians tried to preach to the Jews using "Old testament evidence", the rabbis would point out this error.
DON'T IGNORE THIS BECAUSE YOU DON'T LIKE WHAT IT SAYS