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How exactly is Divorce without cause and remarriage NOT ADULTERY?

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Dying a martyr is a different situation as they died an honorable death even though it was at the hands of others. Before I filed for divorce the second time I searched the scriptures and even still today there are none about divorcing one who has abused you and getting married again. If anyone knows of any please share them as I am at a lost of finding any.
We can not find in the Scriptures what is not there..... The Scripture grounds for divorce are
Mat_5:32 But I say unto you, That whosoever shall put away his wife, saving for the cause of fornication, causeth her to commit adultery: and whosoever shall marry her that is divorced committeth adultery.
 
John 8:7-8 Like I said in post 27 people divorce , depends on what's been going on but 1Timothy 3 seems to indicate to me it will happen even in the church .. There's usually 2 sides to every story then there's the truth ..
 
I understand the part about how much it hurts to get divorced, I had three wives and the last two made 9 years each before they threw me out of my house, the first one lasted for six days before she took her already born little girl and vacated the apartment we rented. To the day she passed over she would not discuss it.

My wife now was a gift from the LORD and was also damaged goods but we are beyond the twenty-sixth year and love our God and one another.

My first divorce was a mutual one and I forgave him for his thoughts of adultery, but could never trust him. I really was not walking in the Spirit during those years. The second divorce really messed with my emotions for when he wasn't drinking and using. he was a good man and even went to church with me a couple of times, but no matter how hard I tried he would not go back to AA or sit and talk about it and the I'm sorry and promises of never hurting me again which came with tears would last one day.

Maybe I should have fought back and physically hurt him to show him what he was putting me through, but I don't think that would have accomplished anything as retaliation was not the best option. I still pray for him and hope he got his life together because there are good parts of him.
 
weird it wouldn't let me use the reply button.

reba, I'm the one who filed for divorce from another state on the grounds of his adultery with other women and also abuse. I gave him a written bill of divorcement as I divorced him, but he never received the document of divorcement for no one knew where he moved to as we were in the middle of packing to move when I left him. This freed me to remarry again.

1 Corinthians 7:10, 11 Jesus commands the woman not to leave her husband and if she does she should remain unmarried or be reconciled back to her husband, but in Malachi 2:10-16 the treachery that man commits against a woman which leads him to have an affair outside of the marriage or abuses the wife whether it be physical or emotional gives place to what was said by Moses in Deuteronomy 24:1-4 that if a woman is no longer pleasing to her husband then the husband should give his wife a written bill of divorcement and send her out of the house and this gives the woman the right to marry again, but she can never go back to her former husband if that marriage does not work out or her husband dies for now she is defiled to be with her first husband and this is an abomination to God.
 
reba, I'm the one who filed for divorce from another state on the grounds of his adultery with other women and also abuse. I gave him a written bill of divorcement as I divorced him, but he never received the document of divorcement for no one knew where he moved to as we were in the middle of packing to move when I left him. This freed me to remarry again.
we agree because of the adultery...
 
As an off shoot of this post and topic sorta.. Any one notice in the Scriptures HER only out is HIS leaving. HE can divorce HER ... Where does it say SHE can divorce HIM?

Not talking about the there is neither male or female we are all one in Christ.. Speaking of the LITERAL words of Scripture
 
First things first:

Therefore what God has joined together, man must not separate.”
Mark 10:9 - https://www.biblegateway.com/passage?search=Mark 10:9&version=LEB

Did God join you together with your first two State sanctioned relationships (yes or no)?

God sanctions all marriages according to what marriage is in Genesis 2:18-25 so the answer is yes. Man/woman must not separate, but does through their own lust of the flesh an deceit that is brought into the marriage causing the two to separate.
 
God sanctions all marriages
God does not sanction (nor join together, which was the question) a believer with an unbeliever.

Do not become unevenly yoked with unbelievers, for what participation is there between righteousness and lawlessness? Or what fellowship does light have with darkness? And what agreement does Christ have with Beliar? Or what share does a believer have with an unbeliever?
2 Corinthians 6:14-15 - https://www.biblegateway.com/passage?search=2 Corinthians 6:14-15&version=LEB

What fellowship would God have with an unbelieving spouse???
 
What fellowship would God have with an unbelieving spouse???
1Co_7:14 For the unbelieving husband is sanctified by the wife, and the unbelieving wife is sanctified by the husband: else were your children unclean; but now are they holy.
 
1Co_7:14 For the unbelieving husband is sanctified by the wife, and the unbelieving wife is sanctified by the husband: else were your children unclean; but now are they holy.
Exactly. The unbelieving husband is sanctified by _______?
A. His wife
B. God.
 
As an off shoot of this post and topic sorta.. Any one notice in the Scriptures HER only out is HIS leaving. HE can divorce HER ... Where does it say SHE can divorce HIM?

Not talking about the there is neither male or female we are all one in Christ.. Speaking of the LITERAL words of Scripture

Exodus 21:10 If he take him another wife; her food, her raiment, and her duty of marriage, shall he not diminish. 11 And if he do not these three unto her, then shall she go out free without money.

This is the only scripture I could find that a woman can divorce her husband if he does not provide for her, but this only speaks of polygamy.
 
That is the one basis Jesus gave for allowing divorce.
For an equally yoked believing husband with his believing wife believing in their oaths they made “to the Lord”, correct.

But I say to you that everyone who divorces his wife, except for a matter of sexual immorality, causes her to commit adultery, and whoever marries a divorced woman commits adultery. “Again you have heard that it was said to the people of old, ‘Do not swear falsely, but fulfill your oaths to the Lord.’
Matthew 5:32-33 - https://www.biblegateway.com/passage?search=Matthew 5:32-33&version=LEB

But this says nothing about two unbelievers who ‘marry’ without making oaths to the Lord.

Would two unbelieving men who marry in California and later one becomes a believer have a ‘basis’ for a divorce?
 
God does not sanction (nor join together, which was the question) a believer with an unbeliever.

Do not become unevenly yoked with unbelievers, for what participation is there between righteousness and lawlessness? Or what fellowship does light have with darkness? And what agreement does Christ have with Beliar? Or what share does a believer have with an unbeliever?
2 Corinthians 6:14-15 - https://www.biblegateway.com/passage?search=2 Corinthians 6:14-15&version=LEB

What fellowship would God have with an unbelieving spouse???


In some marriages people do not enter into a relationship with Christ being the center of it, but maybe one of them come to know the Lord and the other one refuses to have that personal relationship with Christ then we go back to what 1 Corinthians 7:12-16 says. If the unbelieving partner leaves the believing partner then this frees the believing partner from the bondage of the vows of marriage and they are free to marry again.

If one is a believer and knows the scripture of 2 Corinthians 6:14, 15 then no they should not be unevenly yoked, but what if they knew not that scripture yet and entered into a marriage with an unbeliever, does God not sanction that marriage.
 
For an equally yoked believing husband with his believing wife believing in their oaths they made “to the Lord”, correct.

But I say to you that everyone who divorces his wife, except for a matter of sexual immorality, causes her to commit adultery, and whoever marries a divorced woman commits adultery. “Again you have heard that it was said to the people of old, ‘Do not swear falsely, but fulfill your oaths to the Lord.’
Matthew 5:32-33 - https://www.biblegateway.com/passage?search=Matthew 5:32-33&version=LEB

But this says nothing about two unbelievers who ‘marry’ without making oaths to the Lord.

Would two unbelieving men who marry in California and later one becomes a believer have a ‘basis’ for a divorce?
We know what God has said about same sex marriages as they are an abomination to Him.
 
then we go back to what 1 Corinthians 7:12-16 says.
1 Cor 7 says what should be done under several DIFFERENT situations. It’s a list of several answers to specific questions this new Christian church had for Paul, some of which were questions related to God loving married Jews (Joined by God in Jewish marriage) with one spouse newly turned Christian. Not all of 1 Cor 7 is applicable to all situations. Especially to an unpeacful non-believing State sanctioning.

Were you and your first husband joined by God in a Jewish wedding then one of you converted to Christianity? If not, I’d make sure you are looking closely and Paul’s answer to their situation and not imposing it on yours.

In some marriages people do not enter into a relationship with Christ being the center of it,
Correct. In fact, before Christ, no Jew entered a marriage with Christ being the center. Which is why I asked you first if the Lord had joined your previous marriage. You said yes because you think God ‘sanctions’ all marriages. Think about it! Does God join together same-sex marriages??? Does God join together unbelievers??? No.

If one is a believer and knows the scripture of 2 Corinthians 6:14, 15 then no they should not be unevenly yoked, but what if they knew not that scripture yet and entered into a marriage with an unbeliever, does God not sanction that marriage.
God does not ever ‘sanction’ (to use your word) a marriage between an unbeliever in the Lord and a believer in the Lord regardless of their knowledge of 2 Corinthians. Thus, it’s not God who’s joined an unbeliever with a believer, but rather some State.
 
1 Cor 7 says what should be done under several DIFFERENT situations. It’s a list of several answers to specific questions this new Christian church had for Paul, some of which were questions related to God loving married Jews (Joined by God in Jewish marriage) with one spouse newly turned Christian. Not all of 1 Cor 7 is applicable to all situations. Especially to an unpeacful non-believing State sanctioning.

Were you and your first husband joined by God in a Jewish wedding then one of you converted to Christianity? If not, I’d make sure you are looking closely and Paul’s answer to their situation and not imposing it on yours.


Correct. In fact, before Christ, no Jew entered a marriage with Christ being the center. Which is why I asked you first if the Lord had joined your previous marriage. You said yes because you think God ‘sanctions’ all marriages. Think about it! Does God join together same-sex marriages??? Does God join together unbelievers??? No.


God does not ever ‘sanction’ (to use your word) a marriage between an unbeliever in the Lord and a believer in the Lord regardless of their knowledge of 2 Corinthians. Thus, it’s not God who’s joined an unbeliever with a believer, but rather some State.

Gentiles whether they believe in Christ or not are under the moral laws of Christ which are the parts of the laws given to Moses that even stand today in our judicial system. Christ didn't do away with the laws, but came to fulfill the parts of the law in that of the Temple and sacrifices.

A Jewish wedding has nothing to do with a Gentile marriage, but the vows they make before God is what are to be binding whether they be a believer or not a believer as a wedding is a covenant of promise that a man takes care of his wife and the wife being his helpmate as God intended it to be.

No one is talking about a same sex marriage as we know that is not of God, so don't even go there.

Whether one is a believer or non believer makes no difference as we are not married according to the laws of the state, but that of the existing moral laws of Christ that make up part of our judicial system and according to that of 1 Corinthians 7:9 that two unbelievers (male and female) should enter into marriage if they can not contain themselves. The vows they take are that of a covenant they enter to not break that covenant as they are breaking the laws of God.
 
Gentiles whether they believe in Christ or not are under the moral laws of Christ which are the parts of the laws given to Moses that even stand today in our judicial system.
Our worldly, unbelieving judicial system doesn’t give a hoot about the marriage/divorce laws of Christ/Moses. You should know this from the context of Paul’s answer letter to the Corinthians:

Does any one of you, having a matter against the other [like an abusive spouse or a divorce], dare to go-to-court before the unrighteous ones, and not before the saints?... So indeed, if you have cases pertaining-to- this -life [like an abusive spouse or a divorce], are you seating these [as judges]— the ones having been of-no-account in the church? I say this to your shame. So is there not among you anyone wise who will be able to discern between his brother and this brother?— but brother is going-to-court against brother, and this before unbelievers?
1 Corinthians 6:1,4-6 - https://www.biblegateway.com/passage?search=1 Corinthians 6:1,4-6&version=DLNT

Again, atheist unbelievers are unrighteous and of no account within the church, The Temple. To include an unrighteous marriage involving an unbeliever (one or more). And God has no fellowship with unbelievers. Period! Including within an unyoked by God marriage.

Christ didn't do away with the laws, but came to fulfill the parts of the law in that of the Temple and sacrifices.
Okay, I agree. But be consistent with this fact then.

Did God yoke you, a believer, together with an unbeliever??? I say no (based on the Scripture and the Laws therein). You say yes.

And He said [in Gen 2:24], ‘For this reason a man will leave-behind his father and his mother and will be joined to his wife. And the two will be one flesh’. So then, they are no longer two, but one flesh. Therefore what God paired-together, let a person not separate”.
Matthew 19:5-6 - https://www.biblegateway.com/passage?search=Matthew 19:5-6&version=DLNT

If you think God paired you together with an unbeliever, then we disagree fundamentally on God’s 100% righteous working through His moral Law. I find it reprehensible to think God yokes an unbeliever (as in an atheist) with believers (whether Jew or Christian). This is not to disregard the fact that at the time of Paul’s Letters to the Corinthians, there were new Christians converting from Jewish customary marriages. Which Paul addressed in 1 Cor 7.

For I also wrote for this purpose: that I might know your approvedness, whether you are obedient in all things.
2 Corinthians 2:9 - https://www.biblegateway.com/passage?search=2 Corinthians 2:9&version=DLNT

Obedience in all things means to NOT be yoked in marriage to an unbeliever (one abusing his spouse or not). If, as was the case for some in Corinth) you found yourself being a new Christian-convert yoked previously within a Jewish marriage, then remain in that marriage according to Paul (for the sake of your children). However, that has almost nothing to do with a Christian remaining in a ‘marriage-like’ relationship with an atheist because God never sanctioned it in the first place. That’s my point.

A Jewish wedding has nothing to do with a Gentile marriage,
Really??? I disagree, based on Paul addressing this very situation to those Corinthians within existing Jewish marriages. A Godly marriage is a Godly marriage, whether Jewish or Gentile (or blending there-of within the 1st Century). On the otherhand, an unGodly marriage has nothing to do with God. Whether same-sex or not. And yes, there is such a thing as a Lawful divorce (Jewish or Gentile). “Do not be mis-yoked”.

the vows they make before God is what are to be binding whether they be a believer or not a believer as a wedding is a covenant of promise that a man takes care of his wife and the wife being his helpmate as God intended it to be.
Unbelievers do NOT make oaths before God. Fundamentally, we disagree here. I think my view has more support.

No one is talking about a same sex marriage as we know that is not of God, so don't even go there.
It’s relevant because it’s an example of an unGodly ‘marriage’ (does not have a Godly oath involved), just as an unequally yoked marriage between an atheist unbeliever an a believer is another example of an unGodly ‘marriage’. Neither is in accordance with the Law of God. That’s my point. A Biblical marriage IS God joining together a husband with a wife taken from His creation. Anything else is NOT a Biblical marriage in the first place. It’s co-habitats.

Whether one is a believer or non believer makes no difference as we are not married according to the laws of the state,
That was my first question to you. Were you joined together to an unbeliever by God, yes or no? Or by a State (many of which now allow same-sex ‘marriage’ (as if that’s not a contradiction in terms). It matters, the answer.
It makes a huge difference, obviously. Paul is aware that being unequally yoked within a ‘marriage’ is contrary to God’s Law. Jesus said so, and Paul repeated it. So did Moses. Nothing in 1 Cor 7 contradicts this Law.

Do not be ones being mis-yoked to unbelievers. For what partnership is there for righteousness and lawlessness? Or what fellowship is there for light with darkness?
2 Corinthians 6:14 - https://www.biblegateway.com/passage?search=2 Corinthians 6:14&version=DLNT

Notice the literal verb tense of this unchanged Law. It’s present-passive. If you were mis-yoked to an atheist unbeliever, you did NOT arrive in that situation within God’s marriage Law in the first place. Plain and simple. You might think you did, but there’s zero Biblical evidence for it.

On the otherhand, if a wife was previously yoked (by God in a Jewish marriage) to a God loving righteous Jewish man in the later 1st Century an this wife suddenly claimed Jesus Christ is Messiah and Lord (i.e. converted to Christianity from being Jewish), yet her husband did not convert, then Paul tells her to stay married to him if he agreed to remain in the marriage. Otherwise,her children would become unclean. And furthermore, if this woman re-married, she did so committing adultery. [But that has nothing to do with an unGodly marriage]

according to that of 1 Corinthians 7:9 that two unbelievers (male and female) should enter into marriage if they can not contain themselves.
1 Cor 7:9 says no such thing. It’s a very specific instruction to the unmarried females within the church (whether they be widows or virgins). It’s NOT a teaching to non-church members.

The vows they take are that of a covenant they enter to not break that covenant as they are breaking the laws of God.
Unbelievers don’t make oaths to God and God doesn’t yoke unbelievers together.

Sorry, you are not going to convince me otherwise, unless you show me that in Scripture.

God hasn’t joined in marriage (ever in the billions of marriages throughout history) an unbeliever with a believer.
And yes, I am aware of 1 Cor 7. Which is specifically dealing with a Godly joined Jewish marriage where one spouse becomes a believing Christian within that peaceful marriage yet the other remains unconvinced of Jesus’s Messianic fulfilling.

It’s NOT the exact same situation as a atheist v Christian or an abusing atheist v Christian. Anymore than it is the same as a same-sex State sanction ‘marriage’. Not to mention, Paul’s reason for instructing the Christian spouse to remain married to her Jewish husband is so their children remain clean. My point is, he’s NOT instructing a Christian to remain with an atheist in this passage, obviously. Else, he’s contradicting Jesus and himself.

For the unbelieving husband has been sanctified by his wife. And the unbelieving wife has been sanctified by the brother. Otherwise then your children are unclean, but now they are holy.
1 Corinthians 7:14 - https://www.biblegateway.com/passage?search=1 Corinthians 7:14&version=DLNT

The above is talking about a God loving Jewish spouse remaining with a Christ loving Christian spouse. Because they were married in accordance with God’s Law! It’s Not addressing a Christian remaining with an atheist.
 
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