2 Thess 1:9 is entirely compatible with the wicked’s final punishment being their eternal destruction. What the verse is incompatible with (obviously) is their punishment being not actually destroyed (which is why people try alternative meanings for the word to destroy). So you are right (obviously) that it first hinges the meaning of destruction. And yes, if they (their body and/or their soul) are eternally present in a location (i.e. not actually destroyed) then I get your point. It’s a point Greg Koukl has made in response to the view that their punishment really is the utter destruction of their body and soul.
Have you looked in depth at the literal Greek Text for this passage? Or compared the various English translations and more importantly why the translations vary? A literal translation is:
...who will pay the penalty: eternal destruction from the presence of the Lord and from the glory of His strength, ...
2 Thessalonians 1:9 -
https://www.biblegateway.com/passage?search=2 Thessalonians 1:9&version=DLNT
Their Penalty = eternal destruction
Their Penalty comes from the very presence of the Lamb’s glory/strength
Their Penalty occurs when He is revealed from Heaven in flaming fire (Eternal fire).
(The what, who, where and when)
since it will be a righteous thing with God to repay affliction to the ones afflicting you and to give you, the ones being afflicted, rest along with us at the revelation of the Lord Jesus from heaven with angels of His power in flaming fire, giving punishment to the ones not knowing God and the ones not obeying the good-news of our Lord Jesus—
2 Thessalonians 1:6-8 -
https://www.biblegateway.com/passage?search=2 Thessalonians 1:6-8&version=DLNT
V9 appears in the middle of one of Paul’s very long sentences (spanning from v3 to v12, almost the whole chapter other than the greeting in v1-2). V9 is a verse that’s crying to be read in context. So, let’s do that:
1.The sentence’s main subject is not even about the fate of the wicked, but rather how the brothers are (presently I should add) considered worthy of the Kingdom of God versus those causing their affiction being not considered worthy of God’s kingdom.
2. Paul says it’s righteous for God (who is the Lamb in this case, I should add) to “repay” the brothers affliction with “His strength” (His flaming fire, eternal fire, fire and brimstone, His full wrath, etc). Think of Matt 10:28 here (or any othere verse for that matter dealing with the final fate of the wicked). There is zero need to “isolate” any one particular verse from the entire Scripture and yet still believe that the destruction of the wicked (both body and soul) truly does occur. And HOW it occurs (from His strength). And when. And where.
I take the literal meaning of the verse, their destruction comes from His afflicting repayment to the wicked (those afficting the brothers, yet are simply not powerful enough to destroy the souls of the brothers). Their destruction (body and soul) comes “from” the strength of The Lamb (who is able to destroy both body and soul). It’s not about location but rather His power/glory/strength.
If the word “away” wasn’t in the ESV, would you think it’s a problem?
What is the Greek word for “away” appearing in the ESV/NIV translations from the literal Greek Text?
http://biblehub.com/interlinear/2_thessalonians/1.htm