jmt356
Member
I think the question that God poses to Satan can be viewed as rhetorical or as prompting Satan to give an account, but I am still searching for a satisfactory answer as to why an all-knowing God would send two angels to ascertain the sin of Sodom and Gomorrah.
To go back to Sodom and Gomorrah, I disagree with the explanation that the man who visited Abraham was not God. Genesis 18 very clearly states that He was God in multiple places (Gen 18:1, 3, 13, 14, 17, 19, 20, 22, 26, 27, 30, 31, 32, 33). We should therefore conclude that God visited Sodom and Gomorrah and that He sent his two angels to ascertain the extent of the sin of Sodom and Gomorrah.
Assuming that it was in fact God that visited Abraham, what explanation can we put forward to explain why God would state:
Gen 18:20 "The outcry against Sodom and Gomorrah is so great and their sin so grievous
Gen 18:21 that I will go down and see if what they have done is as bad as the outcry that has reached me. If not, I will know."
Assuming God is omniscient, wouldn't He have already known?
To go back to Sodom and Gomorrah, I disagree with the explanation that the man who visited Abraham was not God. Genesis 18 very clearly states that He was God in multiple places (Gen 18:1, 3, 13, 14, 17, 19, 20, 22, 26, 27, 30, 31, 32, 33). We should therefore conclude that God visited Sodom and Gomorrah and that He sent his two angels to ascertain the extent of the sin of Sodom and Gomorrah.
Assuming that it was in fact God that visited Abraham, what explanation can we put forward to explain why God would state:
Gen 18:20 "The outcry against Sodom and Gomorrah is so great and their sin so grievous
Gen 18:21 that I will go down and see if what they have done is as bad as the outcry that has reached me. If not, I will know."
Assuming God is omniscient, wouldn't He have already known?