wondering,
Rom 5:12 (NIV) clarifies this issue: "Therefore, just as sin entered the world through one man, and death through sin, and in this way death came to
all people, because
all sinned."
Adam's sin meant death for "all people" and not for each person. Adam's sin led to all people experiencing death as all of them sinned. So, Adam's sin was imputed to all people.
Rom 5:12-21 (NIV) demonstrates how one person (Adam) acted on behalf of others. Adam is a representative of those under the tyranny of death and sin. However, Christ represents those who are set free to serve God in righteousness.
Imputation is used to designate any action or word or thing as reckoned to a person. Thus in doctrinal language (1) the sin of Adam is imputed to all his descendants, i.e., it is reckoned as theirs, and they are dealt with therefore as guilty; (2) the righteousness of Christ is imputed to them that believe in him, or so attributed to them as to be considered their own; and (3) our sins are imputed to Christ, i.e., he assumed our "law-place," undertook to answer the demands of justice for our sins. In all these cases the nature of imputation is the same (
Romans 5:12-19 ; Compare
Philemon 1:18 Philemon 1:19 ) [
Easton's Bible Dictionary]
I'm convinced the Bible teaches the imputation of Adam's sin to all human beings and the imputation of Christ's righteousness to all believers.
Oz