Those who have been blinded by Satan do not/ can not obey.t's talking about, those who obey and those who do not obey.
So would some be predestined to disobey?
Join For His Glory for a discussion on how
https://christianforums.net/threads/a-vessel-of-honor.110278/
https://christianforums.net/threads/psalm-70-1-save-me-o-god-lord-help-me-now.108509/
Read through the following study by Tenchi for more on this topic
https://christianforums.net/threads/without-the-holy-spirit-we-can-do-nothing.109419/
Join Sola Scriptura for a discussion on the subject
https://christianforums.net/threads/anointed-preaching-teaching.109331/#post-1912042
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Those who have been blinded by Satan do not/ can not obey.t's talking about, those who obey and those who do not obey.
So would some be predestined to disobey?
Those who have been blinded by Satan do not/ can not obey.
So according to you, everyone who is preached to will receive salvation? Everyone? That right?The way unsaved people who are blind receive light and salvation is by the preaching of the Gospel.
So according to you, everyone who is preached to will receive salvation? Everyone? That right?
Yes or No?
I'd say that, at the point in time of your post, none of the Apostles really understood who Jesus was. Maybe Peter and John.Just to clarify my prior reply to JLB about the repentance made by Judas. IMHO, I believe Judas's repentance was exclusively limited to his betrayal of Jesus - that because of his action, Jesus was condemned (and this is a subtle but significant distinction), I don't believe that repentance was by/from the fruit of the Spirit; that is, a repentance given by the Holy Spirit through becoming born again. That kind of repentance is only manifested in an awareness/realization one receives as a gift from the Spirit that Jesus alone is Savior and God along with faith in Him. Had that kind of repentance been demonstrated by him, which it doesn't appear it was, it would have indicated that his sin had been forgiven him. However, that was not the case so his sin remained.
You seem either unwilling or unable to grasp this basic foundational truth from the scriptures.
Absolutely not!
Everyone who hears the gospel most certainly does not automatically receive salvation.
Unwilling because you misinterpret the Bible. You just don't grasp God's salvation and try to turn it into a work dependent upon man.
The way unsaved people who are blind receive light and salvation is by the preaching of the Gospel."
So have you now changed your belief in that proposition? Whether you realize it or not, what you've actually said above is that everyone who hears the Gospel preached, becomes saved, period.
Because, in order to be able to truly believe/understand the Gospel one has to first be born again, not the reverse. You have agreed in the past that God is the Savior, that means everything needed for salvation had to be accomplished by Him or the title of Savior couldn't have been bestowed upon Him. To say otherwise is to try to increase man's contribution while diminishing Christ's. We must first receive the Holy Ghost in order to be taught of Him of things spiritual.Why is it that you believe it is misrepresenting the Bible to teach that one must believe the Gospel of Jesus Christ, in order to be saved?
But no one can believe unless it is first given to them per 1 Co2:14 above. To know the "things of God", we first must have received "the spirit which is of God" per 1 Co 2:12.for it is the power of God to salvation for everyone who believes,
I didn't twist your words, I simply quoted you back to you so you could hear it again. If itYou are trying to twist my words, are misrepresent what I say, because you refuse to believe what is written in the scriptures.
You assume that it is within man's power to believe. Col 2:14 is part of that same GospelThe Gospel is the power of God unto salvation, for all who believe.
Is obeying the Lord required for salvation? The genuine Christian believes what Scripture says concerning the natural heart, namely, that it is "deceitful above all things" (Jeremiah 17:9),and the surest proof that he does believe this solemn fact is that he is deeply concerned lest "a deceived heart hath turned him aside" (Isaiah 44:20), and caused him to believe that all is well with his soul, when in reality he is yet "in the gall of bitterness, and the bond of iniquity." He believes what God’s Word says about Satan, the great deluder, and trembles lest, after all, the Devil has beguiled him with a false peace. Such a possibility, such a likelihood, occasions him much exercise of soul. Like David of old (and every other genuine saint), he "communes with his own heart" (Psalm 4:4), and his "spirit (makes) diligent search"(Psalm 77:6). He turns to the light of Holy Writ, anxious to have his character and conduct scrutinized by the same, desiring to have his deeds made manifest, as to whether they proceed from self-love or real love to God. A.W. Pink – Studies on Saving Faith
The question at hand is is about obedience to God needed for salvation. To answer the question properly one must define the source of the Lord's instructions that are to be obey. Is a man's salvation assured if he follows the instructions of God as found in the Bible alone (Sola Scriptura) or is man's salvation dependent on other instructions from God: tradition, the apocrypha, certain men, other sources. Yes, one must obey God for salvation which is the effect of conversion, but how do you define the contents of obedience. If you believe the Bible you believe that many are deceived, but which source(s) of God instructions are false and do they lead to destruction?
"Study to show thyself approved (obedient)" ... but study who, what. We know whom is the source of truth, but where is His truth to be found? Many are deceived.
Not sure why you quoted my post, as your response is, for the most part, IRRELEVANT.One only needs to read what the scripture says.
And having been perfected, He became the author of eternal salvation to all who obey Him, Hebrews 5:9
Salvation begins by obeying the Gospel, which is what the word “believe” actually means in the original.
Example:
He who believes in the Son has everlasting life; and he who does not believe the Son shall not see life, but the wrath of God abides on him.”
John 3:36 NKJV
He who believes in the Son has eternal life; but he who does not obey the Son will not see life, but the wrath of God abides on him.”
John 3:36 NASB
- he who does not obey the Son will not see life
Let’s encourage each other to love God, by doing what He asks us to do, which is love.
“If you love Me, keep My commandments. John 15:15
JLB
You just don't grasp God's salvation and try to turn it into a work dependent upon man.
Not sure why you quoted my post, as your response is, for the most part, IRRELEVANT.
The Lord is the source of instructions for obedience. My post questioned where one finds what the Lord's instructions for obedience. The Bible, tradition, certain people, the apocrypha, something else, a combination of these, what parts are disqualifying.
This is not a thread about Calvinism.
It is because he has asked an important question and has read your post in context of being an answer to that question based upon the fact that your post has a heading that more-or-less rephrases the question. He has thus interpreted your post as being an answer to that question and proceeded to treat it as such.Not sure why you quoted my post, as your response is, for the most part, IRRELEVANT.
Please explain to us how a person is saved if not by believing the Gospel Message of Jesus Christ
The Lord is the source of instructions for obedience. My post questioned where one finds what the Lord's instructions for obedience. The Bible, tradition, certain people, the apocrypha, something else, a combination of these, what parts are disqualifying.
Because, in order to be able to truly believe/understand the Gospel one has to first be born again, not the reverse.