Hi Smaller
I've twice ask you "Was John under the law of Moses? You REFUSE to answer. Instead you write: ''What does that have to do with salvation by Grace though faith?" Why, sir, can't you answer a simple question? This thread is entitled "Was John the Baptist Saved." If one presumes to believe scripture, then of course we understand John must be saved. The question then is WHEN saved? Thats why the question (you until now refuse to answer) "was John under the law of Moses?" is appropriate. Thus I shall continue to ask the question. BTW, your above expression, "salvation by Grace through faith?" is from Eph.2:8 which is in the NT. Thats why the question "was John under the law of Moses?" is important. Its obvious WHY you refuse to answer, its that "corner getting smaller" thing, isn't it.
Then you write: "I could point to the fact that the Gospel was preached to the Old Testament people and you will totally ignore that fact. Why? BECAUSE YOUR SUBJECTIVELY IMPOSED COMPONENTS WERE NOT IN PLACE YET." No sir, I will not ignore that fact. I in fact will agree. It has been said that the theme of the OT is SOMEONE IS COMING, and the theme of the first four books of the NT is SOMEONE HAS COME, and the theme of the rest of the NT is SOMEONE IS COMING AGAIN, and that Someone is Christ. However, the gospel preached in the OT was done prophetically and NOT in FULLNESS and in FACT. It awaited the death, burial and resurrection of my Saviour for it to be preached in fuillness and in fact which preaching began in Acts 2 on the 1st Pentecost following Jesus' victory over death in the city of Jerusalem. What say you now?
Next you say "Abraham SPOKE post death in Luke 16." I believe that. So what? This is the 2nd time I've told you that. What has this to do with whether or not John was saved and more importantly when saved? If you will please address what it has to do with the subject of this thread I shall then address the same. You say "---they are still WAITING for the 'final construct' as well,--." Will you please explain what you mean by ' "final construct' as well".
Then you quote Jn.11:26. That was spoken by Jesus to Mary and Martha and the context shows Jesus is referring to His resurrection. Querstion Smaller: Had Jesus resurrection occured at this time? Had it occurred in the day of John? Remember what I said regarding your inability to "rightly divide the word of truth? Do you know Paul said Jesus was "DECLARED TO BE THE SON OF GOD WITH POWER, ACCORDING TO THE SPIRIT OF HOLINESS, BY THE RESURRECTION FROM THE DEAD"? Rom.1:4. When?
Finally you conclude: ''In 'Webb's world' WE'D HAVE TO HEAVILY EDIT AND REDACT THOSE WORDS OF HIM WOULDN'T WE? We't have to add:
A. Wait till I die on the Cross
B. Wait til I am resurrected
C. Get baptized in water
D. Belong to webbs sect
I shall answer the above with scripture:
A. "But God commendeth his love toward us, in that, while we were yet sinners,
Christ died for us". Rom.5:8. If we could be saved without the death of Jesus
WHY did He have to suffer and die as He DID???
B. Romans 1:4 which I quoted above. Could any be saved without the realityof
His resurrection?
C. Jesus, the One who will be your judge (John 12:48) said: "He that believeth and
is baptized shall be saved---." Your argument, sir, is not with me but the
Christ.
D. I do here confess I belong to the same "SECT" the apostle Paul was accused of
belonging to in Acts 8:22, which SAME sect you attempt to persecute.
Now, I shall ask again of you these questions: (Was John under the law of Moses? (2) Could the blood of animals save? and now (3) How do you explain Heb.11:39,40?
Have a good night
I've twice ask you "Was John under the law of Moses? You REFUSE to answer. Instead you write: ''What does that have to do with salvation by Grace though faith?" Why, sir, can't you answer a simple question? This thread is entitled "Was John the Baptist Saved." If one presumes to believe scripture, then of course we understand John must be saved. The question then is WHEN saved? Thats why the question (you until now refuse to answer) "was John under the law of Moses?" is appropriate. Thus I shall continue to ask the question. BTW, your above expression, "salvation by Grace through faith?" is from Eph.2:8 which is in the NT. Thats why the question "was John under the law of Moses?" is important. Its obvious WHY you refuse to answer, its that "corner getting smaller" thing, isn't it.
Then you write: "I could point to the fact that the Gospel was preached to the Old Testament people and you will totally ignore that fact. Why? BECAUSE YOUR SUBJECTIVELY IMPOSED COMPONENTS WERE NOT IN PLACE YET." No sir, I will not ignore that fact. I in fact will agree. It has been said that the theme of the OT is SOMEONE IS COMING, and the theme of the first four books of the NT is SOMEONE HAS COME, and the theme of the rest of the NT is SOMEONE IS COMING AGAIN, and that Someone is Christ. However, the gospel preached in the OT was done prophetically and NOT in FULLNESS and in FACT. It awaited the death, burial and resurrection of my Saviour for it to be preached in fuillness and in fact which preaching began in Acts 2 on the 1st Pentecost following Jesus' victory over death in the city of Jerusalem. What say you now?
Next you say "Abraham SPOKE post death in Luke 16." I believe that. So what? This is the 2nd time I've told you that. What has this to do with whether or not John was saved and more importantly when saved? If you will please address what it has to do with the subject of this thread I shall then address the same. You say "---they are still WAITING for the 'final construct' as well,--." Will you please explain what you mean by ' "final construct' as well".
Then you quote Jn.11:26. That was spoken by Jesus to Mary and Martha and the context shows Jesus is referring to His resurrection. Querstion Smaller: Had Jesus resurrection occured at this time? Had it occurred in the day of John? Remember what I said regarding your inability to "rightly divide the word of truth? Do you know Paul said Jesus was "DECLARED TO BE THE SON OF GOD WITH POWER, ACCORDING TO THE SPIRIT OF HOLINESS, BY THE RESURRECTION FROM THE DEAD"? Rom.1:4. When?
Finally you conclude: ''In 'Webb's world' WE'D HAVE TO HEAVILY EDIT AND REDACT THOSE WORDS OF HIM WOULDN'T WE? We't have to add:
A. Wait till I die on the Cross
B. Wait til I am resurrected
C. Get baptized in water
D. Belong to webbs sect
I shall answer the above with scripture:
A. "But God commendeth his love toward us, in that, while we were yet sinners,
Christ died for us". Rom.5:8. If we could be saved without the death of Jesus
WHY did He have to suffer and die as He DID???
B. Romans 1:4 which I quoted above. Could any be saved without the realityof
His resurrection?
C. Jesus, the One who will be your judge (John 12:48) said: "He that believeth and
is baptized shall be saved---." Your argument, sir, is not with me but the
Christ.
D. I do here confess I belong to the same "SECT" the apostle Paul was accused of
belonging to in Acts 8:22, which SAME sect you attempt to persecute.
Now, I shall ask again of you these questions: (Was John under the law of Moses? (2) Could the blood of animals save? and now (3) How do you explain Heb.11:39,40?
Have a good night