Jim Parker
Member
Nope. Same ol' same ol', over and over and over.....Haven't you discussed all this pages ago?
Does anyone have anything "new" to say?
Join For His Glory for a discussion on how
https://christianforums.net/threads/a-vessel-of-honor.110278/
https://christianforums.net/threads/psalm-70-1-save-me-o-god-lord-help-me-now.108509/
Read through the following study by Tenchi for more on this topic
https://christianforums.net/threads/without-the-holy-spirit-we-can-do-nothing.109419/
Join Sola Scriptura for a discussion on the subject
https://christianforums.net/threads/anointed-preaching-teaching.109331/#post-1912042
Strengthening families through biblical principles.
Focus on the Family addresses the use of biblical principles in parenting and marriage to strengthen the family.
Read daily articles from Focus on the Family in the Marriage and Parenting Resources forum.
Nope. Same ol' same ol', over and over and over.....Haven't you discussed all this pages ago?
Does anyone have anything "new" to say?
That's exactly what I said.
What I found baffling was your statement, "Your making Mary incarnate of the Holy Spirit..." (MSG #58)
We know the Mary was the child of Anna and Joachim, not Anna and the Holy Spirit.
Please go back and read you own post.Wasn't my statement Jim its yours... you don't pray to her as well do you?
Maybe they did call them man.
How do we know otherwise?
I said some of the above in previous posts.I'm just saying that for Jesus to address His mother as "woman" in a manner which would not convey the proper respect due to a parent according to the Law of Moses and, even more so, according to the love which defined Jesus' life.
Even the use of the word "woman" when addressing the gentile woman who begged Jesus to heal her daughter did not have a demeaning nuance to it. Rather, he praised her for her faith.
Mat 15:28(RSV) Then Jesus answered her, "O woman, great is your faith! Be it done for you as you desire." And her daughter was healed instantly.
How else did Jesus use the word "woman"?
When Jesus addressed the woman who anointed His head with ointment and washed His feet with tears of sorrow for her sins, His use of the word "woman" was endearing.
Luke 7:44, 50(RSV) Then turning toward the woman he said to Simon, "Do you see this woman? I entered your house, you gave me no water for my feet, but she has wet my feet with her tears and wiped them with her hair.
And he said to the woman, "Your faith has saved you; go in peace."
When Jesus healed the woman in a synagogue, His use of the word was not demeaning or dismissive. He identified her as "a daughter of Abraham."
Luke 13:11-12,16(RSV) And there was a woman who had had a spirit of infirmity for eighteen years; she was bent over and could not fully straighten herself. And when Jesus saw her, he called her and said to her, "Woman, you are freed from your infirmity."
And ought not this woman, a daughter of Abraham whom Satan bound for eighteen years, be loosed from this bond on the Sabbath day?
When Jesus had the conversation with the Samaritan woman, He did not address her in a demeaning or dismissive manner when using the word "woman." By His words she would be saved as would be the entire town.
John 4:21(RSV) Jesus said to her, "Woman, believe me, the hour is coming when neither on this mountain nor in Jerusalem will you worship the Father.
Considering the woman caught in adultery. Jesus' use of the word "woman" is at least neutral but I suspect that His use was caring and considerate rather than demeaning. It was at least neutral as would be appropriate for a 1st century Jewish Rabbi addressing a woman to whom he was not related.
John 8:10-11(RSV) Jesus looked up and said to her, "Woman, where are they? Has no one condemned you?"
She said, "No one, Lord." And Jesus said, "Neither do I condemn you; go, and do not sin again."
Certainly Jesus' words to the weeping Mary Magdalene at the tomb were caring and compassionate rather than demeaning.
John 20:15 (RSV) Jesus said to her, "Woman, why are you weeping? Whom do you seek?"
So, why would anyone conclude that Jesus was being demeaning or dismissive to His own mother because He used the word "Mother" in addressing her?
Do the scriptures support such a view or does the need to take her down a notch or two require it?
iakov the fool
Hey man,
Because it doesn't say so!!
W
Woman is just the feminine form of the word for man in the Hebrew.The fact that Adam called her "woman" first and then "Eve". Eve was named twice. I've never thought of this or read about it.
Any ideas?
Thinking....
Mary gave life to the One Who is Life.Woman is just the feminine form of the word for man in the Hebrew.
Thinking....
When he gave her a personal name it is 'Chavah' which means 'lifegiver' just as the verse says.
I believe there is more than one way this meaning is fulfilled by women when they become mothers, but I think it is the most significant that woman, in the case of Mary, gives life to the Christ, the one who will crush the head of the serpent, satan. She gives life to the eternal lifegiver.
Before the fall there was no need for a Savior, the Christ. But after there is, so woman is given the name Chavah (Eve) that describes her new purpose.
Notice Adam's name, 'ish'/man is never changed to any other spiritually significant name, such as Abram to Abraham, Sara to Sarah, and Woman 'ishshah' to Chavah.
That's right. That's right. That's right. That's right. That's right. That's right. That's right.with out repetition there would be no forums
:nodwith out repetition there would be no forums
Hey RolloRuth 3:18b;
"For the man will not rest until the matter is settled today".
Question; After calling him Boaz throughout the chapter, why did she finish the chapter by calling him "man"?
Could it be there is more going on than you realize?
Hey Rollo
There's always more going on than I realize!
You could share, you know...
And since this is bible study, let me post a verse: 1 Corinthians 2:5
(we could try to explain everything every which way, but it's the power of God in our lives that really counts!)
Wondering
Very good! I like this.Woman is just the feminine form of the word for man in the Hebrew.
Thinking....
When he gave her a personal name it is 'Chavah' which means 'lifegiver' just as the verse says.
I believe there is more than one way this meaning is fulfilled by women when they become mothers, but I think it is the most significant that woman, in the case of Mary, gives life to the Christ, the one who will crush the head of the serpent, satan. She gives life to the eternal lifegiver.
Before the fall there was no need for a Savior, the Christ. But after there is, so woman is given the name Chavah (Eve) that describes her new purpose.
Notice Adam's name, 'ish'/man is never changed to any other spiritually significant name, such as Abram to Abraham, Sara to Sarah, and Woman 'ishshah' to Chavah.
RolloNo, I don't like Bible studies, I always get in trouble.
Rollo
It's difficult to believe you could ever get into trouble.
You always keep everyone in a good mood - how could that get you into trouble?
It would be sad around here without you.
W