lordkalvan said:
BobRyan said:
lordkalvan said:
Can we concentrate on one or perhaps two that support a particular estimate for the age of Earth derived from the Bible?
hmmm - ok...
Sedimentation rates of all major river deltas.
Well, okay, go on then. Please show the science that tie these to a specific date for the creation of Earth derived from the Bible.
As we all know -- it takes us back to the flood -- when all major rivers were created.
That would be about 4500 years ago.
I don't know that any Darwinism or evolutionism would have predicted such a convenient fact for Creation.
L.K
What about those Daniel 7 predictions, by the way, as you appeared to be advancing this as significant support for the reliability of the Bible? Just to remind you, my questions were:
Which are the four empires that are so ‘predicted’?
Bob
Answer; Babylon - Medo-Persia, Greece, Rome and the split of Rome into ten divisions AND the fact that those divided entities would never again be able to reform into a single empire.
Which Babylonian empire is being referred to?
Nebuchadnezzar's - Hint: the one that captured Palestine.
Which Greek empire is being referred to, assuming Grecia can confidently be associated with Greece?
Hint: the one that conquered Persia (as the text says) -- 4th century BC.
You seem to like "just-saying-nay" without looking at the facts first.
I find that curious.
The Book of Daniel is variously attributed to the 6th-2nd Century BCE. 'Predicting' empires (Babylonian, Median and Athenian or Macedonian) that were either already or no longer in existence scarcely counts as a prediction.
Try 6th century B.C that is the one that actually works - and makes sense unless one is an atheist and "needs" the book to be written after the fact so that "there is no god" can be in some way "protected" from history.
What are the ten divisions into which the Roman Empire is supposed to have divided? When did this occur?
538 AD was the point at which the divisions were complete and the last of the 3 segments in the Roman empire that were to vanish - was eliminated.
Bob said
The last one is simply identified as the kingdom that came up after Greece.
Is it not strange to you that the first three 'empires' are confidently identified by name, but the fourth isn't? Can you think why this might be?
Because it would have no meaning to a reader in the 6th century B.C.
However the fact that there would not be a 5th ruling empire and that the nation states would try through marriage to re-unite that empire is clearly predicted. So also the persecution of the saints that would occur for 1260 years.
Many things for the "just-say-nay" groups to be confronted by in scripture.
L.K
Indeed, why should the ‘prediction’ refer to European empires at all? Why not Asian or American, for example?
Bob said
You speak as someone who clearly has not read Daniel.
Well, you see I just had difficulty recognizing Babylon and Media as European empires
Are you needing a world history book for the territory and history of the major world empires in that area from the 6th century BC to the 5th century A.D?
, which was your claim; as the fourth 'empire' is not named at all, I can see no particular reason to single Rome out rather than, say, any other kingdom that came 'after' the Greek 'empire'. I am also intrigued as to how you define the beginning and end of the kingdom of 'Grecia' and even how you can so certainly identify Grecia with Greece.
How many Greek empires did you notice conquering Medo-Persia again??
The Hebrew term is - "Yavan" - NASB translates it 11 times as "Greece".
Sadly for the just-imagine-nay groups -- there are a lot of confirming facts in favor of the Bible.
L.K.
Indeed, how are these empires identified at all? What are the grounds for accepting such an identification?
Bob
Hint: they are named in the text.
Try this concept -- read the text before nay-saying it.
Well, they are named in the text after a fashion. Two may reasonably be associated with regional powers in existence at around the time Daniel was written.
A convenient eisegesis of the text.
Stick with the facts please.
A third is hopefully associated with an undefined Greek empire that was also already in existence at around the same time (if the reference can reasonably be related to the Athenian or Macedonian Empires, that is, and which I have yet to see demonstrated). The fourth is the result of banging on history with a hammer in a rather desperate effort to make it fit the prediction as required to validate a preexisting assumption.
Hint: Every history book known to mankind shows Babylon - Medo-Persia - Greece and Rome as world empires following in succession - conquering the predicessor as the Bible shows. The fact that Daniel predicted this sequence in the 6th century B.C is obvious embarrassment to agnostic and atheist groups -- but is a noticable fact for anyone who took the time to read the book of Daniel.
In fact that Bible also predicts the rapid rise of Greece - the prominence of Alexandar the Great and the split of Greece into four after his death. (Dan 8)
Every history book known to mankind marks the rapid conquest by Alexandar and the division of Greece into 4 kingdoms.
Every history book known to mankind shows Rome divided during the invasion of the germanic tribes. Divsions that still exist today in the form of France, England, Germany, Italy, Spain etc.
Every history book known to makind admits that this division resulted in the European nation states who tried for centuries to re-unite through marriage and through war - but failing.
The "deny-the-obvious" tactics of the just-say-nay-group appears to be all that they have left. Why pretend not to "notice history" at this point? Where is that getting you?
Bob