How does John 1 accommodate the idea that Jesus is not divine? All you have demonstrated here is the following.
1. You don't understand trinitarian theology.
And , I might add, neither do you. On how many occasions have trinitarians stated
'this is a great mystery' when confronting such seriously trinitarian-contradictory passages as John 14.28? 'My Father is greater than I'. Well, is He greater, or isn't He?
And the undoubted 2 facts that
1 God cannot sin
2 But Jesus certainly could (but didn't).
Therefore, Jesus could not be God in nature. And if the ability to sin is inferior to being incapable of sin, then Jesus must have been inferior to His Father: which, of course, is clearly implied by John 14. 28 above, and elsewhere.
These are mutually exclusive things, and accepting the doctrine of the trinity means accepting the 'great mystery' referred to above, which clearly means that trinitarians don't understand their own theology. Which is the accusation you level against me!
2. We affirm that Jesus is functionally subordinate to the Father, but not ontologically.
This is what I meant by:
I am deeply suspicious of any doctrine which is a theological construct, not identified explicitly in scripture, and which requires substantial extra-scriptural support from suspicious theologians, and uses suspiciously philosophical descriptive terms which are nowhere found in scripture. (Such as 'hypostatic union!')
You've just added another:
functionally subordinate to the Father, but not ontologically.
A fundamental tenet of the trinity is that The Father, the Son and the Holy Spirit are: 'co-equal, co-substantial, co-eternal' and a lot of other co-'s besides.
None of the three, therefore, on the grounds of 'co-
equality' can possibly be
'subordinate' to any other. That is a contradiction in terms, and logically unacceptable. So you have just flatly contradicted your own position, haven't you?
3. You disregard certain Scriptures in favor of others.
I would go further than that in describing your position.
The whole tenor of scripture, from beginning to end, is that 'there is One God, the Father', and 'Jesus Christ our Lord is His Son'.
There is, therefore, a divine hierarchy: namely Number One: The Father. Number Two: The Son.
You may not disregard this plainness of doctrine, for whatever reason.
You may not make anyone the equal of God the Father, and you may not put the Lord Jesus into a position which He never sought (as Adam did, to be equal with God), and which must be excruciatingly painful to Him, who, as a bondslave is, 'come to do thy will, O God', who is repeatedly described as
'My Servant', and
'my Son' ('this day have I begotten thee' Ps 2, and 'this is
my Beloved Son, in whom I am well pleased' at His baptism).
Theology is not made from a selection of verses, it is made from an accumulation of all the verses on the matter. And it clearly states that, "God was the Word."
That, I'm afraid, is a selected verse, and a possible mistranslation. On such flimsy grounds do you base your argument.
The heavy accumulation of verses (such as I quoted above, concerning the Holy
ONE of Israel, the
One God of Deuteronomy 6.4 and Mark 12.28-32, and of Exodus 20.)
is one-sidedly in favour of the Oneness and total supremacy of the Father who, as He says, has
NO EQUAL. (entirely contradicted by the
'co-equality' clause of Athanasian and Nicene creeds, to which I presume you subscribe).
And I may again mention the fact that I have collected a total of 78passages in John's gospel alone, which state entirely flatly and without any possibility of doubt, that Jesus is subordinate to His Father.
Against that, you have a few verses in John 1 which can very easily be strongly disputed.
Quite apart from anything else, don't these
numbers mean anything to you?
How many times does Jesus have to say that 'God sent Him', that God is His Father', 'that He does the will of His Father', that He 'can do nothing but what His Father shows/ teaches Him' and a multitude of such equivalent statements which cannot be controverted, before you believe Him?