Free, I have not ignored you. I have been replying carefully to DI, and that takes some thought and time, of which I have limited amounts.
It is truly strange how you can so completely ignore 78 passages, all of which state very clearly the Jesus is subordinate to, inferior to, lesser than His Father.
What are you going to do with all those passages?
I urge you to consider them very carefully before dismissing them with a wave of the old theological wand..
You are either not following the discussion or you really don't know what the doctrine of the Trinity teaches. No trinitarian is denying the humanity of Jesus nor his subordination, his willful submission, to the Father
once he took on the nature of a human. So all the verses you have given do not in any way whatsoever prove the Trinity false.
The problem is that you continue to willfully ignore the many passages proving the deity of Jesus, that he is fully and truly God, just as the Father is. You continue to fail to address the significant contradictions in your position, which have been shown with Scripture. It is not I, nor any trinitarian here, that is waving some "theological wand."
It is also very strange, isn't it, that none of the other gospel writers supports your collective position? Why is there no incontrovertible reference to the trinity in Matthew, Mark, and Luke?
This is a serious error in reasoning on your part. Even
if it were true that there was "no incontrovertible reference to the trinity" in the other gospels, your very argument completely undermines the authority of John's gospel. I strongly suggest you do a serious study on the gospels and learn their differences and their purposes. Regardless, the very use of the term "Son of God" refers to the deity of Jesus.
In fact, Mark clarifies John's statement in 1: 1. He says, 'the beginning of the gospel of Jesus Christ'. THAT is the beginning to which John is referring - and if you stick with the great old principle scripture by scripture, you have no difficulty understanding Jn 1.1.
Here, again, is another significant exegetical error. In no way
whatsoever is Mark clarifying John's statement. Not a chance. Mark is clearly referring to the beginning of the "good news", while John, is clearly referring to Gen 1:1, to creation:
Joh 1:1 In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God.
Joh 1:2 He was in the beginning with God.
Joh 1:3 All things were made through him, and without him was not any thing made that was made.(ESV)
The very context proves your argument to be false. Verse 1 is showing us who the Word is--that the Word has always existed, the Word was in intimate relationship with God, and that the Word was in fact also God.
Right there that does in your entire position, yet there is more. Not only does verse 3 bring in the context of creation, hence why your argument to Mark is false, it very clearly states that every single thing that has come into existence, came into existence through the Word. Therefore,
the only logical conclusion, is that the Word existed in eternity past and is uncreated. This is in perfect agreement with verse 1 (and Col. 1:16-17 and 1 Cor 8:6, which has been pointed out to you before).
Mere 'prooftexting?
78 passages all prooftexting? Please, take any or all of them, and demonstrate the truth of your statement, and that I am wrong to read them as I do: ie at face value..
And prove what, exactly? You didn't prove anything by them, hence why it is prooftexting. Simply posting verses does not mean that you have said anything at all. You must explain how each one supposedly supports your position. Some may be self-explanatory but some may not. Besides, it has already been stated that there is nothing in those that disagree with the doctrine of the Trinity. If you think they do, the onus is you to prove it.
As I keep pointing out, it is your position that does this very thing. The whole tenor of scripture is summarised in the sh'ma as expanded by Paul:
1 Cor.8: 6 But to us there is but one God, the Father, of whom are all things, and we in him; and one Lord Jesus Christ, by whom are all things, and we by him.
I seriously can't believe that you would refer back to this verse, after I have already shown how it contradicted the very things you are saying. Of course, you haven't addressed the contradictions up to this point, so I won't hold my breath for an answer now.
I'll refer you back to my post #36
http://www.christianforums.net/Fell...ads/proof-of-trinity.51592/page-2#post-880456
You posted: "The Jews are very important in this discussion. Jesus said 'Salvation is of the Jews'.
Therefore, we cannot, must not ignore or contradict their views of God.
And what was their view?
Very simple, and very simply stated in very many places:
Deut 6.4 ¶ Hear, O Israel: The LORD our God is
one LORD:"
Notice that you even bolded "
one LORD".
At the end of that very post, you finished with: "1Co 8:6 But to us there is but
one God, the Father, of whom are all things, and we in him; and one Lord Jesus Christ, by whom are all things, and we by him."
Notice that you bolded "
one God,"
but completely ignored that Jesus is said to be the "one Lord." Which is it then? You have a serious contradiction here. Please clear it up. Not to mention that if "one God" is said to exclude Jesus from being God, the only logical conclusion is that "one Lord" excludes the Father from ever being Lord.
But not only that, let's look at what Paul is actually saying--"there is but one God, the Father,
of whom are all things...and one Lord Jesus Christ,
by whom are all things." If "all things" really means "all things," and I notice how often you like to say you take verses at face value, then, again, the
only logical conclusion is that Jesus is
not one of these "things." Indeed, just as "of whom are all things" speaks of the eternal pre-existence of the Father, so "by whom are all things" speaks of the eternal pre-existence of Jesus, or perhaps better, the Son.
Your position makes quite a mess of things as the verse you keep using to support your position actually completely does your position in. And you will notice that it is complete agreement with John 1:1-3.
Paul is nothing if not consistent. In the same letter he states:
1 Cor 15.28 And when all things shall be subdued unto him, then shall the Son also himself be subject unto him that put all things under him, that God may be all in all.
and:
3 But I would have you know, that the head of every man is Christ; and the head of the woman is the man; and the head of Christ is God.
How you can ignore all that, I simply do not know.
I'm not the one doing the ignoring. A key passage, which has been pointed out to you in past discussions, is Phil 2:5-8:
Php 2:5 Have this mind among yourselves, which is yours in Christ Jesus,
Php 2:6 who, though he was in the form of God, did not count equality with God a thing to be grasped,
Php 2:7 but made himself nothing, taking the form of a servant, being born in the likeness of men.
Php 2:8 And being found in human form, he humbled himself by becoming obedient to the point of death, even death on a cross.(ESV)
Some things worth noting:
1. Jesus was "in the form of God."
2. Yet, he "did not consider equality with God a thing to be grasped," that is, something to be retained or forcibly held on to.
3.
He, Jesus, "made
himself nothing." (emphasis added) It follows that a) he had the power to make himself nothing, b) if he became nothing, he had been "something," and that something was his being "in the form of God," or "being in very nature God" (NIV).
4. His being made nothing is further explained as "taking the very nature of a servant," "being made in human likeness" and "being found in appearance as a man." This supports the notion that he had been something, he had been "in very nature God."
5. He "being found in appearance as a man, he humbled himself and became obedient to death." Again, pretty self-explanatory.
And it must be pointed out that this is in perfect agreement with John 1:1-14, Col 1:16-17, and 1 Cor 8:6, among others. This passage in particular though is speaking of the humility of Jesus, who, although he was God, willingly submitted to the Father for the purpose of saving humankind.
Indeed, if Jesus is not fully and truly God, we have no salvation.
You need to demonstrate the validity of your assertion, which at the moment is just that - an assertion.
I think it must be obvious to everybody that the vast number of scripture quotations that are available to me, and even more, the simplicity with which even an intelligent child can understand them, without any casuistry or avoidance of their very plain meanings, speaks volumes for the truth of what I say.
But you need to produce some serious refutations, and those 78 passages is probably a good place to start.
I have more than demonstrated the validity of my assertion, even showing how your argument to "very plain meanings" that "even an intelligent child can understand," is not adhered to by you. The things said very plainly show that your entire position is in grave error. As for refutations, I have no need to refute passages of Scripture with which I have no disagreement with.
As for you, however, you have some significant contradictions which need to be addressed.