The Son of God was the Son of God at that point, and always will be; but the Son of God was yet to become Jesus Christ - the Name given to the Son of God clothed with a body of flesh prepared for Him.
Come Gregg.
I read nothing there that remotely suggests that the Son of God was to become Jesus Christ. He simply wasn't there.
If He was, then language becomes meaningless.
I WILL BE His Father means that at the time, God was
not yet His Father. That's fairly simple logic, I thought.
HE WILL BE my Son also very clearly implies that He was ,
AT THE TIME OF WRITING, not God's Son. Because He hadn't been born as yet.
After the Son of God descended from Heaven, into His body that was prepared for Him, then He took the Name Jesus, and Jesus Christ - and rightfully the LORD Jesus Christ.
You keep on making this mistake about a body being prepared.
Can I ask, do you believe that scripture interprets scripture?
If you do, can you see (from your marginal references) that this is a quotation from Psalm 40?
Where a servant has declared that he will serve his master forever, by having his ear
pierced with an awl to the doorpost of the gate?
The word 'body' is used to mean a 'slave' in several places in the NT (especially Romans 6): so Jesus is here declaring that He is God's bondservant, who will not leave God's service forever. Read Ex.21 and see that this is the truth.
This is also in accordance with several major prophecies in Isaiah, which I am certain you know :
1 ¶
Behold my servant, whom I uphold; mine elect, in whom my soul delighteth; I have put my spirit upon him: he shall bring forth judgment to the Gentiles.
2 He shall not cry, nor lift up, nor cause his voice to be heard in the street.
3 A bruised reed shall he not break, and the smoking flax shall he not quench: he shall bring forth judgment unto truth.
Who is this servant?
This passage is quoted by Matthew, and applied firmly and unmistakably to the Lord Jesus:
Mt 12.17 That it might be fulfilled which was spoken by Esaias the prophet, saying,
18
Behold my servant, whom I have chosen; my beloved, in whom my soul is well pleased: I will put my spirit upon him, and he shall shew judgment to the Gentiles.
Isa 42:19 Who is blind, but
my servant? or deaf, as my messenger that I sent? who is blind as he that is perfect, and blind as
the LORD’S servant?
Isa 49:5 And now, saith the LORD that formed me from the womb
to be his servant, to bring Jacob again to him, Though Israel be not gathered, yet shall I be glorious in the eyes of the LORD, and my God shall be my strength.
Isa 49:6 And he said, It is a light thing that thou shouldest be
my servant to raise up the tribes of Jacob, and to restore the preserved of Israel: I will also give thee for a light to the Gentiles, that thou mayest be my salvation unto the end of the earth.
Isa 49:7 Thus saith the LORD, the Redeemer of Israel, and his Holy One, to him whom man despiseth, to him whom the nation abhorreth, to
a servant of rulers, Kings shall see and arise, princes also shall worship, because of the LORD that is faithful, and the Holy One of Israel, and he shall choose thee.
Isa 52:13 Behold,
my servant shall deal prudently, he shall be exalted and extolled, and be very high.
Isa 53:11 He shall see of the travail of his soul, and shall be satisfied: by his knowledge shall
my righteous servant justify many; for he shall bear their iniquities.
So, when those prophecies were being written, if Jesus was
to be the Lord's Servant (as those quotes above from Isaiah say), was yet
to be His Son (as both 2 Sam 7 and Psalm 2 say), was yet
to be His Firstborn (as Psalm 89 says), then where does that leave your theory?