John 17:11 can be interpreted in more than one way. That is why there are differing translations of it:
Of course there are different translations of every verse in the Bible! Some are in French, some are in Spanish etc. Here are some examples:
ESV | Jn 17:11 And I am no longer in the world, but they are in the world, and I am coming to you. Holy Father, keep them in your name, which you have given me, that they may be one, even as we are one.
1901 ASV | Jn 17:11 And I am no more in the world, and these are in the world, and I come to thee. Holy Father, keep them in thy name which thou hast given me, that they may be one, even as we are.
be one even as We are.
NIV | Jn 17:11 I will remain in the world no longer, but they are still in the world, and I am coming to you. Holy Father, protect them by the power of your name, the name you gave me, so that they may be one as we are one.
NIV84 | Jn 17:11 I will remain in the world no longer, but they are still in the world, and I am coming to you. Holy Father, protect them by the power of your name—the name you gave me—so that they may be one as we are one.
In my opinion, I find no discernible difference between them, and in the verses you pasted below. Each of them have Jesus addressing Someone other than Himself, who is also God
But that is not the issue that needs addressing.
The primary issue is that because this represents the High Priestly Prayer of Jesus Christ, we need to treat this special; these are the actual words of Jesus, therefore they can not be anything other than 100% true.
Second, we must determine if there any variants in the current mss that we have available that would warrant different, contrasting translations, as you suggest. There are no other Greek manuscripts known in the world that suggest that there is any difference to support a position other than what these cited English translations represent. The Critical Apparatus for the Nestle Aland version, 28th edition cites a word variant:
καθώς [kathos /kath·oce/] adv. From 2596 and 5613; GK 2777; 182 occurrences; AV translates as “as” 138 times, “even as” 36 times, “according as” four times, “when” once, “according to” once, “how” once, and “as well as + 2532” once. 1 according as. 1A just as, even as. 1B in proportion as, in the degree that. 2 since, seeing that, agreeably to the fact that. 3 when, after that.
Strong, J. (2001). Enhanced Strong’s Lexicon.
So what we end up with is a RANGE of possible meanings of a particular word when we look at its context.
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Zech. 12:10 is also disputed:
"...when they look upon him whom they have pierced" - RSV. Also in agreement with this rendering are NRSV; GNB; MLB; NAB (1970); NAB (1991); LB; Mo; AT; JB; NJB; NLV; BBE; and Byington. (ASV says in a footnote for "me" in Zech. 12:10: "According to some MSS. [manuscripts], `him'." Also see Rotherham footnote.)
Can you please supply the reference book that you used for this quote above?
Without providing the annotation, and crediting the source, you make it seem that the passage is your own. that is a big no-no here because the powers that be here take a dim view of plagiarism. here is what the tos says:
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Please tell us where this is mistranslated, as you allege:
ESV | Zec 12:10 “And I will pour out on the house of David and the inhabitants of Jerusalem a spirit of grace and pleas for mercy, so that, when they look on me, on him whom they have pierced, they shall mourn for him, as one mourns for an only child, and weep bitterly over him, as one weeps over a firstborn.
But most important of all is John 19:37 (even in the KJV) where this scripture has been quoted by John! All [English] translations show John here translating Zech. 12:10 as "They shall look upon him [or `the one'] whom they pierced." So we have this Apostle and inspired Bible writer telling us plainly (and undisputed even by trinitarian scholars) that Zechariah 12:10 should read: "They shall look upon him (not `me')." Therefore, Jehovah is speaking in Zech. 12:10 of someone else who will be pierced - not Himself!
As for Joshua/Jesus, Yehoshua does not have the Hebrew character for the second ‘H’ in it. Instead the ‘sh’ sound is actually a single ‘W’-like letter called shin.
Furthermore, since the name is shared by at least two men in scripture, we shouldn’t understand it as being another name for YHWH.
Have you looked at the Septuagint (LXX) to see what it says? It is well-known that that is what many of the Apostles quoted.
What you REALLY need is not to look at English translations to prove your point, but you need to research using the original languages. Your allegations are based on English translations and not on original language exegesis. That is because you make many allegations, but do not supply proofs for your allegations, and that is why differing English translations are insufficient to make your point.
That is why you need to do more research, and see for yourself what is in the original languages. It seems to me that you are taking the words of a select few as true, and I believe that you need to widen your horizions theologically.