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Revelation 1:1-3 Seldom examined verses

I didn’t say all of it occurred. The days of great tribulation (terrible times) occurred to them in their lifetime. We and they have no need of knowing when the Resurrection will occur, but death and destruction coming is something they needed to know.

The second coming and the Resurrection have not occurred yet.
I get that all of revelation isn't just about those people but seeing the connection in the first three verses makes me wonder if there are any other connections. It makes me want to study the people and events of 70 AD more.
 
But you said that is was soon to take place in the first century.
No, it took place, the days of great tribulation, I said, took place in the first century.
You explained who the message was for and you went through great detail as to what soon meant to you.
It’s what soon means to everyone.
If those other things were meant for the people of the first century then the rest of the same letter would have been meant for them too.
All of the books of prophesy include different time periods. Revelation itself mentions 1000 years after those horrible days.
You said soon mean soon. Not hundreds or thousands of years away.
The bits that are written to the churches was to happen soon and said so and it did. And it was as bad as described. Obviously the Resurrection wasn’t included in soon since at least 1000 years was to pass if not longer.
Now your saying the message is soon but is thousands of years away.
The bits that indicate not soon we’re not. Why isn’t that clear?
You just changed your stance faster than a politician needing votes.
You need to realize that when it says 1000 years, that bit is not soon. Pretty obvious but I guess it needs to be said.
 
I get that all of revelation isn't just about those people but seeing the connection in the first three verses makes me wonder if there are any other connections. It makes me want to study the people and events of 70 AD more.
I’m on vacation but when I’m back I’ll get the name of a little book that goes through Josephus’ description. It’s astounding in its parable. The details match and they are very horrible.

Bruce Gore does a presentation on youtube that’s pretty good.
 
I get that all of revelation isn't just about those people but seeing the connection in the first three verses makes me wonder if there are any other connections. It makes me want to study the people and events of 70 AD more.
It’s really a faith booster to learn about the fulfillment of Matthew 24 and the terrible bits of Revelation.
 
I’m on vacation but when I’m back I’ll get the name of a little book that goes through Josephus’ description. It’s astounding in its parable. The details match and they are very horrible.

Bruce Gore does a presentation on youtube that’s pretty good.
Thanks for the suggestions. My knowledge of the people and events of 70 AD is just cursory.
Jesus mentioned the events of 70 AD too so this new connection makes me want to learn more.
 
Thanks for the suggestions. My knowledge of the people and events of 70 AD is just cursory.
Jesus mentioned the events of 70 AD too so this new connection makes me want to learn more.
The temple was so destroyed that not one stone was left, as Jesus predicted, and we know the name of the Roman who plowed it all under.
 
This is not my logic, it is how written communicate is done. If you wrote a letter to your senator, it isn’t my logic that the message is intended for your senator.


So you think that might mean anyone who likes the idea? What’s the alternative?

Please stop saying it’s my personal logic that messages addressed to particular people mean they’re for those people. It doesn’t make you look good.

You need to read the story. All the descendants of Abraham, Isaac and Jacob including those survivors.

It wasn’t but you forgot that they had children.
So now your saying it's not the people who God said it to, but thier descendents who may be born thousands of years after God said it to thier ancestors.
But your argument in Rev 1 is he has to be talking to those to whom it is given. Now you say deuteronomy can be meant for other people born thousands and thousands of years after it was given to the people to whom it is written.

Sounds rather twisted to me.
 
No, it took place, the days of great tribulation, I said, took place in the first century.

It’s what soon means to everyone.

All of the books of prophesy include different time periods. Revelation itself mentions 1000 years after those horrible days.

The bits that are written to the churches was to happen soon and said so and it did. And it was as bad as described. Obviously the Resurrection wasn’t included in soon since at least 1000 years was to pass if not longer.

The bits that indicate not soon we’re not. Why isn’t that clear?

You need to realize that when it says 1000 years, that bit is not soon. Pretty obvious but I guess it needs to be said.
According to Daniel 12:1-2
At the time of the great distress, ALL of Daniels people who's names are written are delivered at that time, and many of those who sleep in the dust shall awake.
You say this time of distress Daniel speaks of happened in the first century but you say the resurection which takes place at Christ's coming has not.
Daniel said they both would take place at the time of the end.
So what year do you claim was the end when Jesus raised the dead?
 
1The revelation of Jesus Christ, which God gave him to show to his servantsa the things that must soon take place. He made it known by sending his angel to his servant John, 2who bore witness to the word of God and to the testimony of Jesus Christ, even to all that he saw. 3Blessed is the one who reads aloud the words of this prophecy, and blessed are those who hear, and who keep what is written in it, for the time is near.

The start of any letter in the Bible states clearly who the writing is intended to reach. This is clear…..except when many read Revelation.

But if we read the words we see the writer and Jesus INTENDED his servants UNDERSTAND what they were about to read. It was NOT intended to be a mystery to those who received these writings. Now which servants?

Obviously the ones receiving the writings living when John was writing. How do we know? It says he wanted to show his servants what would soon take place. Soon doesn’t mean 2000+ years.

Now before you tell me God doesn’t understand what “soon”means to us but only what it means to Him which is essentially nothing (1000 years = 1 day to Him,) the intention was that they, those readers, understand. The book was not supposed to be sealed but open. If a mother tells her hungry children dinner is “soon” she is using “soon” as they understand it, not according to her ability to endure hungry several hours. God isn’t less of a communicator. He used “soon” as we understand it…and soon it was.

Lastly, it needs to be said that the Jewish expression “coming in the clouds” is used elsewhere in scripture to denote God’s judgement on a nation totally destroying it. That is what that metaphor means in the OT. It’s serious judgement accompanied by unspeakable suffering. This judgement happened in 70AD as Jesus said it would.

So Revelation was a book written to those believers in those churches and elsewhere who would suffer as described. It is for us to be amazed at the fulfillment as well as anticipate the final chapters when Jesus comes as when left, not on a horse with an armed entourage, but by Himself. Not angry or wrathful.

Maranatha!
PS
You wouldn't happen to know the name of the man who gave everyone the mark of the beast so that they would be able to buy and sell with it do you?
I mean, since you say that it already happened.
 
This isn't about everything in Revelation occurring. It's just examining a connection with some of the passages that have come to pass.
I didn’t say all of it occurred. The days of great tribulation (terrible times) occurred to them in their lifetime. We and they have no need of knowing when the Resurrection will occur, but death and destruction coming is something they needed to know.

The second coming and the Resurrection have not occurred yet.
 
Very good. And. Maybe spiritual children and not just children after the flesh.

eddif
The children may even come thousands of years after the fact. Same as with revelation 1.It could have been written so that people thousands of years after it was written would understand it as they were being persecuted as John was persecuted.
It's possible it could even be written for this group of people being persecuted in this verse.


I doubt Dorothy would believe Jesus could speak to people thousands of years in advance though. She believes Jesus could only be speaking to those who were of the 1st century,and not anyone who might be persecuted by the beast before the Son of man comes.
 
The temple was so destroyed that not one stone was left, as Jesus predicted, and we know the name of the Roman who plowed it all under.
The bad people of Jerusalem were destroyed about 400 years before Jesus came on the scene. Ezekiel best describes this. Ezekiel also describes the people who sighed over the sins of Israel being placed in sanctuaries in foreign nations. Those good people IMHO, are the ones from every nation on the day of Pentecost.

eddif
 
Ezekiel 9:4 kjv
4. And the LORD said unto him, Go through the midst of the city, through the midst of Jerusalem, and set a mark upon the foreheads of the men that sigh and that cry for all the abominations that be done in the midst thereof.
5. And to the others he said in mine hearing, Go ye after him through the city, and smite: let not your eye spare, neither have ye pity:
6. Slay utterly old and young, both maids, and little children, and women: but come not near any man upon whom is the mark; and begin at my sanctuary. Then they began at the ancient men which were before the house.

eddif
 
So now your saying it's not the people who God said it to, but thier descendents who may be born thousands of years after God said it to thier ancestors.
The descendants of the promises received on Mt. Sinai were their children. You know, the biological children? Why has that escaped you.
But your argument in Rev 1 is he has to be talking to those to whom it is given. Now you say deuteronomy can be meant for other people born thousands and thousands of years after it was given to the people to whom it is written.
The Constitution is also for people born 200 years plus later. Why is this concept difficult for you?
Sounds rather twisted to me.
You’re twisting things but I can still sort it out.
 
The children may even come thousands of years after the fact. Same as with revelation 1.It could have been written so that people thousands of years after it was written would understand it as they were being persecuted as John was persecuted.
It's possible it could even be written for this group of people being persecuted in this verse.


I doubt Dorothy would believe Jesus could speak to people thousands of years in advance though. She believes Jesus could only be speaking to those who were of the 1st century,and not anyone who might be persecuted by the beast before the Son of man comes.
You do not understand my position it seems. What you wrote is incorrect.
 
Romans 2:28 kjv
28. For he is not a Jew, which is one outwardly; neither is that circumcision, which is outward in the flesh:
29. But he is a Jew, which is one inwardly; and circumcision is that of the heart, in the spirit, and not in the letter; whose praise is not of men, but of God.

eddif
 
The bad people of Jerusalem were destroyed about 400 years before Jesus came on the scene. Ezekiel best describes this. Ezekiel also describes the people who sighed over the sins of Israel being placed in sanctuaries in foreign nations. Those good people IMHO, are the ones from every nation on the day of Pentecost.

eddif
The bad people in Jerusalem arose again and again murdered the men God had sent them, including the son of God. For this all the blood of the prophets from Abel to Zechariah was layed upon them and they were destroyed.
 
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