Of course.The point of the passage is the giving of the Holy Spirit. God's holy church was born on that day, the feast of weeks.
You tell me. You brought it up initially.How so? What are we even fighting about?
That's a very broad definition which would include any and all biblical teaching. Here is how Albert Barnes defines "prophesy," based on its usage in the NT:Call it whatever you like, but by biblical definition according to this authoritative source, it's prophesying, for Peter was speaking on behalf of God.
'The word “prophesy” does not mean only to foretell future events, although that is the proper meaning of the word, but also to declare anything that is unknown, or anything which cannot be known by natural knowledge or without revelation.'
Does any of that fit what Peter did, or was Peter simply quoting prophecy? Can you show any instance in the NT where it fits the definition you have given, or, can you show any instance in the NT where it doesn't fit Barnes's definition?
I asked what that has to do with anything I've said, which is to ask: what argument of mine are you addressing?You demand I stick with the text, I oblige.
Where is the congregation mentioned in this passage? What does the lack of necessity of tongues being reproduced in every congregation have to do with the text in question?If you truly agreed that "speaking in unknown foreign language" is not necessary to be reproduced in every congregation, as you did in #6, then why must it be reproduced in this occasion?
How many times is "tongues" mentioned in Acts? Are any congregations mentioned in Acts? Can you see any other reason for tongues being mentioned in Acts? Where is the one time that a congregation is mentioned using tongues in the NT?
Acts 2 gives us a clear definition of what is meant by "tongues"--speaking in a language unknown to the speaker. Then, "tongues" are mentioned only two more times in Acts, with no other definition given. It follows that "tongues" carries the same definition throughout Acts and even the rest of the NT, which is only 1 Cor 12-14, where it is also mentioned as a spiritual gift.You criticize me for defining "prophesying" and going beyond the text, and here you're doing exactly that, defining "tongues" and going beyond the text.
So, how, exactly, have I gone beyond the text?