And, yet, it is an exegetical fallacy to conclude that since "spirit" is neuter that therefore the Holy Spirit is an "it," not a "he." First, according to Mounce,
the gender of nouns, for the most part, don't indicate the gender of the object. That is, grammatical gender doesn't indicate personal gender.
Second, the gender of a noun never changes. Yes, “spirit” in the Greek is neuter. However, look at John 14:16, 26, 15:26 and 16:7, where “Helper,”
parakletos, is masculine. According to the gender argument then, that means the Helper is a he. So, which is it? Is the Holy Spirit a "he" or an "it"? The Holy Spirit cannot be a “he” in one context and an "it" in another context.
Third, context matters. When we look at the contexts where the Holy Spirit is mentioned throughout the NT, we see numerous actions of personal agency, including the use of
parakletos--Advocate, Counselor, Comforter, Helper.
Fourth, "spirit,"
ruach, in Hebrew is feminine, but masculine in Aramaic. Which are you going to go with? Jesus said that "The Spirit of the Lord is upon me," which, according to the gender argument, shows that the Spirit is neuter. But that is a quote from Isa 61:1, where Spirit is feminine. So, again, which is it?
To sum, then, it is clear that the argument that the Holy Spirit is an "it" based on the neuter gender of “spirit” is fallacious.
Here is John 16:7-8 from the NWT:
7 Nevertheless, I am telling you the truth, it is for your benefit that I am going away. For if I do not go away, the helper will not come to you; but if I do go, I will send
him to you.
8 And when that one comes,
he will give the world convincing evidence concerning sin and concerning righteousness and concerning judgment:
It's interesting that in John 14:16, 26, and 15:26, the NWT avoids using personal pronouns, but not so here. The NWT is shown to be a poor, purposely corrupted translation that tries to remove the deity of Jesus and the personhood of the Holy Spirit. It just ends up contradicting itself because such things are so embedded in the texts that they cannot be fully removed.
And, apart from the exegetical fallacy above, "Any strictly literal Bible translation would have to use “it” for the holy spirit (since it is really not a person, but God’s active force, a literal translation would be helpful in this case)," is fallaciously begging the question.