I do not deny a distinction between the Father and the Son.
I will deny that they are separate, i.e. the Father IS NOT the Son IS NOT the Holy Ghost.
"Is not" simply shows they are distinct. If the Father is the Son and is the Holy Spirit, then there is no distinction at all.
In what manner does the Bible show that they have coexisted?
Again, ontologically. You are saying that the resurrected Christ ascended to exist outside of time. But the manner in which the Bible states they have coexisted for all eternity past is that there never was a time when the Son did not exist as distinct from the Father. This is prior to all creation. In what you are saying is there was a time when the Son did not exist.
No; He was begotten in the incarnation (Luke 1:35). I have scripture that substantiates my contention. Do you have scripture to substantiate yours?
Your verse does not at all substantiate your position. You have to go right to the meaning of "only begotten," which I have provided more than once in this thread, only for the crickets to respond.
John 3:16--"he gave his only begotten Son"-- and 1 John 4:9--"God sent his only begotten Son into the world"--both show that the Son was begotten before all creation, before all time and space. And this is precisely what John 1:1 shows, along with verses 2 and 3. This is why we speak of the Son being eternally begotten or eternally generated.
John 1:1-2, yes the Word existed alongside of God in the beginning; for the risen Jesus is ascended to exist outside of time.
You are conflating two ideas or rather periods of "time"--before all creation of time and space, and after all creation, specifically after Christ's resurrection. John 1:1-2 show that the Word, the preexistent Son, existed alongside and in intimate relationship with the Father prior to the creation of all space and time, before the beginning began. This is further supported by verse 3:
Joh 1:1 In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God.
Joh 1:2 He was in the beginning with God.
Joh 1:3 All things were made through him, and without him was not any thing made that was made. (ESV)
Simple logic tells us that since "all things were made through [the Word], and without him was not any thing made that was made," then the Word has always existed, in intimate relationship with the Father.
If the Word came into existence at a point in time,
then John 1:1-3 are false.
I don't see how 1 Corinthians 8:6 or Colossians 1:16-17 in any way preclude the Son being begotten in the incarnation.
1 Cor 8:6 and Col 1:16-17 simply repeat the simple logic of John 1:3. And notice that neither mention the Word, but rather 1 Cor 8:6 says "Jesus Christ" and Col 1:13 tells us that Paul is speaking of the Son in verse 16 and 17.
Then I am in agreement with the idea that God is ontologically three Persons.
If you were, then we wouldn't be having any disagreement. Do you agree that there was a "time" before creation existed, that all that existed was God? If so, did God exist as three coequal, co-eternal, consubstantial persons? If not, then you are not in agreement that God is ontologically three persons.
Yes, there is one Spirit who is God.
The Father being that Spirit dwelling in eternity without flesh.
The Son being the same Spirit come in human flesh.
This is most definitely substantiated by the biblical language.
If by "same Spirit" you mean "same substance," then yes, but that language is confusing, as it sounds like the Holy Spirit is all that exists, who also happens to be the Father, who then came in the flesh as the Son. But that is not biblical.
There is.
Mar 12:29, And Jesus answered him, The first of all the commandments is, Hear, O Israel; The Lord our God is one Lord:
This is stunning but not surprising. I have addressed this error several times in this discussion (
'echad and
heis vs.
yachid), only for every anti-trinitarian not only to ignore it, but to then repeat the same defeated argument. Again, this is
only a statement of monotheism,
not a statement regarding the nature of God. You would do well to stop using it to support your position, because it doesn't.
The Trinity, by definition, refers to one God as three distinct Persons. The Trinity that I purport fits under that definition (as I do not purport three modes but three Persons).
If you don't agree with the Athanasian Creed, then you really believe in three modes, not persons. Or, if you believe one eternal Person became three Persons, then that would also be three modes, not persons. Distinction of persons in that case is just illusory or superficial.
You give lip service to the concepts of monotheism.
Because the historical doctrine of the Trinity, being based entirely on Scripture, fully affirms monotheism.
Again, to say that the Father IS NOT the Son IS NOT the Holy Ghost, defines them as being separate rather than distinct.
No, it's just to keep them distinct and, as the Athanasian Creed states, to not confound the persons. That is, to not say that the Father alone existed for all eternity prior to creation and then became the Son and the Holy Spirit. Or, put another way, to not say that one Person became three Persons.
What one person was saying about it is that everlasting Father does not refer to God the Father.
Because it doesn't, otherwise it would completely contradict the NT.
Jesus is God; and Jesus is flesh and blood (1 John 4:1-3, 2 John 1:7).
Yes, he is truly God and truly man. That is in harmony with the historical doctrine of the Trinity.
Jesus is the Son in that He is come in human flesh. Therefore, He was not the Son before He became flesh.
Jesus is the Son come in human flesh. That is precisely what John 1:1-3, 1 Cor 8:6, and Col 1:26-17 clearly show. Logically, it cannot be otherwise. As I have also pointed out many times in this discussion, Jesus said that he came from the Father, that he was sent by the Father, and that he was with the Father prior to his incarnation (John 3:13; 6:38, 62; 17:5, 24). These ideas are then repeated in various places throughout the NT.