Revised OP:
Predestination unto Salvation: Was Divine Election Conditional, Unconditional or Both?
Scripture says divine election is conditioned “according to the foreknowledge of God” (
1 Pt. 1:2):
Scripture also says divine election was not conditioned according to works either good or evil the Elect do:
Like the Blind Men and the Elephant, Calvin citing Paul declared Election was by Sovereign choice and not based upon foreknowledge at all, while Arminius quoted Peter and insisted it was based upon the works of “foreseen faith” or its arbitrary nature implies unrighteousness with God.
But if we deduce what it was God foreknew, the paradox vanishes. Before the foundation of the world it follows Omniscient God had two versions of Creation in view, the “Unfallen Version” which existed only in the Mind of God, and the “Fallen Version” that actually came into existence.
If God elects according to “a condition” foreknown in the “unfallen version” (which never comes into existence), Election would be according to God’s Sovereign “good purpose and will” and free of any hint of unfairness even though it is not based upon any works of good or evil the Elect actually do in this life.
What if the Bible Teaches Both Predestination and Free Will? Scripture says divine election is conditioned "according to the foreknowledge of God" (1 Pt. 1:2): Elect according to the foreknowledge of God the Father, through sanctification of the Spirit, unto obedience and sprinkling of the blood...
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