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Unique, Not Only-Begotten

do you believe that Jesus Christ is Eternally YHWH, in the Godhead? I don't mean His "human nature", after The Incranation
Yes

The most holy trinity is a sacred mystery!

Col 1:26 Even the mystery which hath been hid from ages and from generations, but now is made manifest to his saints:

Only God may lawfully receive adoration and worship!

Heb 1:6
Matt 2:11
Matt 4:10
Matt 8:2
Matt 9:18
Matt 14:33
Matt 15:25
John 9:38


Only God can change the commandments!

Matt 5:21-22

Only God can by His own will and command of His voice work miracles! (Men must implore God’s power like Moses parting the sea, or the apostles working miracles by the name of the Holy child Jesus.)

Matt 8:26
2 pet 1:1-3

Jesus eternal!
Jn 17:5
Heb 13:8

God incarnate / God becomes man!
Jn 1:1-14
1 Tim 3:16


Only God is the source of life, Jesus is the life! Jesus is the resurrection!
1 Jn 1:2
Jn 10:10
Jn 11:25
Jn 20:21-23
Jn 14:6
Eph 2:1 & 5

Only God can be the source of grace and forgive sins, Jesus the source of grace, forgiveness of sins.

Jn 1:16-17

Unity of Christian faith includes the trinity and the divinity of Christ!

Matt 28:19 Go ye therefore, and teach all nations, baptizing them in the name of the Father, and of the Son, and of the Holy Ghost:

1 Jn 5:7 For there are three that bear record in heaven, the Father, the Word, and the Holy Ghost: and these three are one.

2 cor 13:14 The grace of the Lord Jesus Christ, and the love of God, and the communion of the Holy Ghost, be with you all. Amen.

The most holy trinity is a sacred mystery!
Col 1:26 Even the mystery which hath been hid from ages and from generations, but now is made manifest to his saints:

Only God can shine as the sun!

Matt 17:1 And after six days Jesus taketh Peter, James, and John his brother, and bringeth them up into an high mountain apart,

2 And was transfigured before them: and his face did shine as the sun, and his raiment was white as the light.


Dogma (thee faith revealed by Christ and taught by Holy mother church)

The nature of God is incomprehensible to man:

In God there are Three Persons, the Father, the Son and the Holy Ghost. Each of the Three
Persons possesses the one (numerical) Divine Essence.

The Relations in God are really identical with the Divine Nature.
The Three Divine Persons are in One Another.

All Glory to God!
 
Monogenēs

Does this word mean “begetting” in any way, as some would argue?

Commentaries, like the Cambridge Greek Testament for Schools and Colleges, say of “monogenēs”, “It refers to His eternal generation from the Father”, on John 1:14. The words used in this verse by John, “monogenous para patros”, literally means, “the only One from the side of the Father”. Or “with the Father”. In John 1:1, a similar Greek preposition, “prós”, is used, with the same meaning as in verse 14. If we are to understand “generation”, then we would expect the correct Greek preposition to have been used, which is “ex (ek)” to have been used (monogenous ex patros).

If the Bible wanted to show that Jesus Christ is the “only begotten”, from God the Father, then we should see the correct Greek word used for this, which is, “monogennētos”. This is never used.

The early Church Creeds use language that is not from what the 66 Books of the Holy Bible Teaches, but, rather based on the theology of the time.

For example, when the Nicene Creed (AD 325), and others, use language like, “τὸν ἐκ τοῦ Πατρὸς γεννηθέντα πρὸ πάντων τῶν αἰώνων”, “the One begotten out of the Father before all ages”, and “Φῶς ἐκ Φωτός, Θεὸν ἀληθινὸν ἐκ Θεοῦ ἀληθινοῦ”, Light out of Light”, “True God out of True God”. This is clearly teaching a subordination in the Eternal Godhead, between the Father, Who is seen as “Fons Deitatis”, which is, “the source of Divinity”; and the use of the Greek preposition, “ἐκ”, is also for the purpose of showing that the Father alone is absolute God, and Jesus Christ is “God” in the sense that His Deity is “derived” from the Father. This is utter blasphemy! There is not a single hint in the entire Bible, to even suggest that the Father is in any way “primary” in the Godhead, and “greater” than Jesus Christ. Only during the Incarnation, Jesus Christ “humbled Himself”, as the God-Man, at which time He was “subordinate” to the Father; though completely coequal as Almighty God.

It is important to know, that the Nicene Creed, is based on the “creed” the Caesarean Creed of Eusebius, the historian, who was very much sympatric to the arch heretic, Arius! For the sake of compromise, and a fake “unity”, the Orthodox Church allowed this heretical “creed’s” language to be included in the Nicene Creed.

In 381 AD, we have the Creed of Constantinople, which focused on the Person of the Holy Spirit, especially to His Deity. In this Creed, there is a phrase on the Holy Spirit, “τὸ ἐκ τοῦ Πατρὸς ἐκπορευόμενον”, “Who proceeds from the Father”. This is meant to be from Jesus’ own words in John 15:26. However, Jesus words are: “ὃ παρὰ τοῦ Πατρὸς ἐκπορεύεται”. Note the preposition that Jesus uses, “παρὰ”, which means, “from beside” the Father. This “Creed” has perverted the words of Jesus Christ, by changing this to, “ἐκ”, to show that the Holy Spirit is “derived” from the substance of the Father, and is therefore “subordinate” to Him in the Eternal Godhead!

Biblically and theologically, if at any time, God the Father did “beget”, or “generate” the Son, in the Godhead, in eternity past, then there is no way that Jesus Christ can be GOD, and must be a created person. Nor can Jesus Christ ever be equal with the Father, as the teaching of “eternal generation”, is that the Father is the “source” of the Son, and therefore is alone God in the fullest sense of the word. This is totally against the very clear Teachings in the 66 Books of the Holy Bible, from Genesis to Revelation, where Jesus Christ is YHWH, and 100% COEQUAL with the Father and Holy Spirit in the Eternal Godhead.

The Greek adjective, “monogenēs”, is used 9 times in the entire New Testament, Luke 7:12, 8:42, 9:38; John 1:14, 18, 3:16, 18; Hebrews 11:17, 1 John 4:9. Out of these, only in the Writings of the Apostle John, is it used for Jesus Christ.

In the 3 passages in Luke, “monogenēs” is used for any “only” child. The verse in Hebrews is used for Isaac, a son of Abraham, where Versions like the King James, wrongly read, “only begotten”. Isaac is the second born son to Abraham, Ishmael was the Firstborn son.

In the Greek Old Testament, known as the Septuagint Version (LXX), “monogenēs”, is only used 4 times to translate the Hebrew word, “yâchîyd”. In Judges 11:34, the King James has “only”. In Psalms 22:20 and 35:17, it reads, “my darling”. In Psalm 25:16, it reads, “desolate”. Not once does the King James read, “only Begotten”. “yâchîyd”, is used only 12 times in the Hebrew Old Testament, Genesis 22:2, 12, 16; Judges 11:34; Psalm 22:20, 25:16, 35:17, 68:6; Proverbs 4:3; Jeremiah 6:26; Amos 8:10, and Zechariah 12:10. In these instances, the King James uses words like, “darling, desolate, only, solitary”, but never, “begotten”. In the passage in Genesis 22, when used for Isaac, the King James has, “only”, in each place. So, why did they translate the Greek “monogenēs, in Hebrews 11:17, which refers to this passage in Genesis, by, “only begotten”?

For the sake of word usage, the Apocryphal Old Testament, from the Greek, which was included in the 1611, King James Version, between the Two Testaments, “monogenēs, is used at least 6 times. In this edition of the King James, it uses, “only, one only, only begotten, alone desolate”. The one place that it has, “only begotten”, Tobit 8:17, “only” would have sufficed, as in the NRSV, “Blessed are you because you had compassion on two only children”

In the 3 places in Luke’s Gospel, the King James reads, “only”. In the other places, it reads, “only begotten”. The reference in Hebrews, is Isaac, who was the second son of Abraham, who has 12 sons. So, it is incorrect that “monogenēs” is translated as “only begotten” here, because Isaac was not the only child of Abraham.

In the Old Latin New Testament, “monogenēs”, is translated by, “unicus”, from where we get the English, “inique”. In the 4th century, when the scholar Jerome produced his Latin Vulgate, he used the Latin, “unigenitus”, which answers to the Greek, “monogennētos”.

In Bible translations like the King James, and some of the older ones, translate “monogenēs”, only when used for Jesus Christ, as “only begotten”. In the other instances it is usually, “only”, with a few exceptions.

On the meaning of “monogenēs”, we have:

"the only member of am kin or kind: hence, generally, only, single, unique" (H G Liddell and R Scott; A Greek-English Lexicon, p.1144. Revised Edition)

"Lit. it means 'of a single kind', and could even be used in this sense of the Phoenix (1 Clem.25.2). It is only distantly related to gennao, beget. The idea of 'only begotten' goes back to Jerome who used unigenitus in the Vulg. to counter the Arian claim that Jesus was not begotten but made" (Colin Brown, Ed., The New International Dictionary of New Testament Theology, Vol. II, p. 725)

"Single of its kind, only; used of only sons or daughters...used of Christ, denotes the only son of God or one who in the sense in which he himself is the son of God has no brethren" (J H Thayer; Greek-English Lexicon, p.417)

"only...Also unique (in kind) of someth. that it the only example of its category...'unique and alone'" (W F Ardnt and F W Gingrich; A Greek-English Lexicon, p.529)

"The Usage outside the NT. In compounds with genēs, adverbs describe the nature rather than the source of derivation. Hence monogenēs is used for the only child. More generally it means “unique” or “incomparable.” The LXX has the first sense in Judg. 11:34 and the second in Ps. 22:20. agapētós occurs in Gen. 22:2, 12 where monogenḗs might have been used (cf. Mk. 1:11), but while the only child may be “beloved,” the terms are not synonymous." (G Kittel and G Friedrich, Theological Dictionary of the New Testament, p. 607. single vol ed)

“Μονογενής means only, one of a kind, unique (derived from μόνος and γένος). This basic meaning is found in Plato Ti. 92c (of the heaven: εἷς οὐρανὸς ὅδε μονογενής); Wis 7:22 (of the Spirit of Wisdom); Cornutus Theologia Graeca 27 [49:13] (of this one and only world: εἷς καὶ μονογενὴς ὁ κόσμος; likewise Plutarch Moralia 423a); 1 Clem. 25:2 (of the phoenix).

(Exegetical Dictionary of the New Testament)

For the Lord Jesus Christ, the definitions given by Kittel, “unique” or “incomparable”, are the best.
Who else, besides Jesus, was sired by God ?
Nobody.
Jesus is then the only One begotten of God.
 
Can you provide just ONE verse in the Old Testament, where God is said to be the Father of Jesus Christ?

Only God is eternal

Hebrews 13:8
Jesus Christ the same yesterday, and to day, and for ever.


Jesus calls God father

Jn 17: 5 And now, O Father, glorify thou me with thine own self with the glory which I had with thee before the world was.

Only God can give life:
Jn 14:6 I am the life.

Jn 5:21 For as the Father raiseth up the dead, and quickeneth them; even so the Son quickeneth whom he will.

Jn 5:26 For as the Father hath life in himself; so hath he given to the Son to have life in himself;

Jn 14:6 way, truth, and the life…

Ephesians 1
Paul, an apostle of Jesus Christ by the will of God, to the saints which are at Ephesus, and to the faithful in Christ Jesus: Grace be to you, and peace, from God our Father, and from the Lord Jesus Christ. Blessed be the God and Father of our Lord Jesus Christ, who hath blessed us with all spiritual blessings in heavenly places in Christ: ...

If God is the father and Jesus is eternal then He must be the eternal father

Thanks
 
Can you provide just ONE verse in the Old Testament, where God is said to be the Father of Jesus Christ?
There is only one covenant in effect the new covenant in his blood! God is immutable and the trinity did not begin but is eternal
 
What other "relation" is there ?
The Word took on flesh, when He was begotten of God and Mary.

there are some who teach that the Father has "generated" the Son eternally as to His Divine Being in the Godhead. This is known as "eternal generation". Some of the "Creeds" of the early Church include this, which is 100% UNBIBLICAL
 
Greetings again SolaScriptures,
The Bible teaches that Jesus Christ is YHWH
You have avoided my question regarding the KJV margin of Matthew 1:20 which has: Greek "begotten". Jesus is The Son of God.

There are a number of occasions in the OT where an Angel bears the Name Yahweh because he speaks and acts on behalf of the One God, Yahweh, God the Father. Also there are some prophecies, for example Isaiah 6, where Jesus also bears the Name Yahweh, and this is also because he represents Yahweh.

The One God, Yahweh, God the Father is clearly distinguished from David's and our Lord in the following, and this verse is one of the most quoted and expounded verses in the NT, and the following example is sufficient to establish the NT teaching that there is One Yahweh:
Psalm 110:1 (KJV): The LORD (Yahweh) said unto my Lord, Sit thou at my right hand, until I make thine enemies thy footstool.

Revelation 3:21–22 (KJV): 21 To him that overcometh will I grant to sit with me in my throne, even as I also overcame, and am set down with my Father in his throne. 22 He that hath an ear, let him hear what the Spirit saith unto the churches.


I also have a thread "The Yahweh Name" which shows that Jesus is a development of the Yahweh Name and this gives an additional perspective on some of the OT occurences of Jesus as "Yahweh".

Kind regards
Trevor
 
Greetings again SolaScriptures,

You have avoided my question regarding the KJV margin of Matthew 1:20 which has: Greek "begotten". Jesus is The Son of God.

There are a number of occasions in the OT where an Angel bears the Name Yahweh because he speaks and acts on behalf of the One God, Yahweh, God the Father. Also there are some prophecies, for example Isaiah 6, where Jesus also bears the Name Yahweh, and this is also because he represents Yahweh.

The One God, Yahweh, God the Father is clearly distinguished from David's and our Lord in the following, and this verse is one of the most quoted and expounded verses in the NT, and the following example is sufficient to establish the NT teaching that there is One Yahweh:
Psalm 110:1 (KJV): The LORD (Yahweh) said unto my Lord, Sit thou at my right hand, until I make thine enemies thy footstool.

Revelation 3:21–22 (KJV): 21 To him that overcometh will I grant to sit with me in my throne, even as I also overcame, and am set down with my Father in his throne. 22 He that hath an ear, let him hear what the Spirit saith unto the churches.


I also have a thread "The Yahweh Name" which shows that Jesus is a development of the Yahweh Name and this gives an additional perspective on some of the OT occurences of Jesus as "Yahweh".

Kind regards
Trevor

The Greek in Matthew 1:20, is γεννηθὲν, which is the same word used in verses 2-16, "Abraham begat Isaac", etc. which has the meaning, "to bring forth, to bear". It does not really matter what the KJV uses in their margin reading.

The word for Jesus Christ, in verses like, John 1:14, where the KJV reads, "only begotten", is the Greek, μονογενής, which means, "one of a kind, unique"

On Psalm 110:1, I have dealt with this in much detail, https://christianforums.net/threads/psalm-110-1-yahweh-said-to-yahweh.101822/
 
Greetings again SolaScriptures,
The Greek in Matthew 1:20, is γεννηθὲν, which is the same word used in verses 2-16, "Abraham begat Isaac", etc. which has the meaning, "to bring forth, to bear". It does not really matter what the KJV uses in their margin reading.
Which to me teaches that God the Father is the father of Jesus and Mary his mother. I am also happy with "only begotten" to describe this process, as Jesus is the only human that God begat.
Yes, and I responded in Post #2 and and re-reading that now, I am still happy with my response. There is a major difference between Yahweh and Adon, David's Lord. Your thread title is erroneous and so is your argument.

Kind Regards
Trevor
 
Hi SS
You've hit on one of my pet peeves in the language of the Christian faith.
The word BEGOTTEN.
Many times I've wished that word was not used.
Your post is very scholarly and I just hope it's not too long - it may lose some members/posters.
I like very much how you went through the history of the councils of 325 and 381, I can't remember if you mentioned the one of 430 or so which stated that the correct wording was in 325, Nicea.

One question: (I admit I didn't read every word)...
Could you please explain your last sentence?
What about the Holy Spirit as God?

This verse also shows, against the heresy of “Unitarianism”, that there are TWO distinct Persons, Who are both called GOD. Note, that neither case is the definite Greek article used (theon, theos), which focuses on the Essential Deity of the Father and Jesus Christ.

Thanks.
Maybe "the only legitimate child" or "the only rightful heir" is better? That's the case for Isaac, Ishmael before him by Hagar and other children by Kenturah after him don't get to receive the inheritance.
 
Greetings again SolaScriptures,

Start with the title "Psalm 110:1 Yahweh said to Yahweh". You have rejected what the Hebrew says and substituted "Yahweh" for "Lord" (Hebrew adon).

Kind regards
Trevor

you have misread what I have said in the OP

According to Adam Clarke in his commentary, he says that there is at least one Hebrew manuscript that reads in verse 1, "Yahweh said to Yahweh"

"Instead of לאדני ladoni, "my Lord," one MS. seems to have read ליהוה layhovah, "Jehovah said unto Jehovah, 'Sit thou on my right hand,'" etc. See De Rossi" (https://www.stepbible.org/?q=version=Clarke|reference=Psa.110)
This Hebrew manuscript is Jewish, and has nothing to do with any Christians. Further, in verse 5 the second "Lord" in verse one in about 20 Jewish Hebrew manuscripts, reads, YAHWEH!
I have also shown very clearly, that MANY times in the Hebrew Old Testament, "’āḏōn" is used for Yahweh, or, the Father.
 
Greetings again SolaScriptures,
you have misread what I have said in the OP
I do not think I have misread both the title of your thread and what you are seeking to prove, as the conclusion of your OP is stating that the "Lord" of verse 1 is "a Person Who is Himself Almighty God", "The Messiah in this Psalm ... is Yahweh", "that He is the LORD at the right hand of Yahweh, and is Himself Yahweh".
All of the “objections” that have been used to try to “prove”, that the second “Lord” in verse 1, does not refer to a Person Who is Himself Almighty God, are proven to be completely false! Together with verse 5, and the rest of this Psalm, there is no doubt that The Messiah in this Psalm, and the entire Bible, is Yahweh.

In the Gospels, Jesus Christ uses the words in verse 1 to show that He is the LORD at the Right Hand of Yahweh, and is Himself Yahweh! (Matthew 22:41-46; Mark 12:35-37; Luke 20:41-44)

Kind regards
Trevor
 
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