What's the difference?
You pick words out instead of reading entire chapters.
Hello again wondering,
A person commits evil sin by disobeying God's Commandments such as "
You shall not bear false witness" (Lord Jesus Christ, Matthew 19:18) which refers to "
You shall not bear false witness against your neighbor" (Exodus 20:16, one of the Ten Commandments). Your "
You pick words out instead of reading entire chapters" is an outright lie because God has had me read the entire Bible with God-given understanding.
Bible chapter and verse designations were added long after the original manuscripts were penned, so, while chapter and verse are useful, your priority on chapter islands instead of concepts the Word of God propounds inside and/or outside the boundaries of a chapter illuminates your inability to understand Scripture. God has me here proclaiming to you that the Christ does things like maintains the Old Testament's concept recorded in Exodus 20:16 as a New Testament concept for the life of a Christian in Christ.
The Word of God says "
woe to you, scribes and Pharisees, hypocrites" (Matthew 23:13). As a reminder, you scribed "
You pick words out instead of reading entire chapters", but then in your same post, you quoted a single verse of John 11:45 as your free-will proof. You accused me in your self same post that you did the very thing that you accused me - that is hypocrisy, and Jesus used a very strong word against such hypocrisy.
Words can be translated in different ways,
Concepts CANNOT.
No one comes to the Father but through me.
No one comes to the Father except because of me.
Where's the difference?
There is none.
If we want to go to the Father, it will have to be
THROUGH JESUS
BECAUSE OF JESUS
It's all the same.
The Word of God conclusively declares the concept of
"no one comes to the Father except because of Me" (John 14:6), so the Word of God excludes man, including you
wondering, from coming to the Father because of your purported free-will - see that God alone is the cause. This dispenses of where you asked "
What's the difference?".
You can think that.
That does not make it so.
Explain the difference between
John 12:32
32“And I, if I am lifted up from the earth, will draw all men to Myself.”
John 14:6
6Jesus said to him, “I am the way, and the truth, and the life; no one comes to the Father but through Me.
THROUGH Me
BECAUSE of Me
DRAWN by Me
Explain the difference.
Christ's words indicate precisely the same result:
"And I, if I am lifted up from the earth, will draw all men to Myself
(John 12:32)
"I am the way, and the truth, and the life; no one comes to the Father except because of Me.
(John 14:6)
Neither Word of God statement attributes coming to God as being under the control of man's purported free-will.
Both Word of God statements attribute coming to God as exclusively under the control of God.
I still don't see where in any of the above it states that
GOD CAUSES and/or chooses, based on NOTHING, to come to God.
Because it does not state this.
You convey "
GOD NEITHER CAUSES nor chooses, based on NOTHING, to come to God because it does not state this".
You wrote "
Because it does not state this", and you used the word indicating "
cause" - just look at the first word from your quoted statement right there.
So, your thoughts can be restated accurately as "
Jesus not saying that God causes people to come to God in John 14:6 IS THE CAUSE of God not causing people to come to God".
See how your "
because" is the same thing as "
IS THE CAUSE".
Lord Jesus used the word "
because" in the Word of God
"no one comes to the Father except because of Me (John 14:6).
So, this Word of God can be restated accurately as
"I exclusively AM THE CAUSE of every single person's coming to God" (per John 14:6)
Now, your diametrically opposite concept to the Word of God is evident because Jesus conveys
"I exclusively AM THE CAUSE of every person who comes to God" (per John 14:6), yet you convey "
Jesus not saying that God causes people to come to God in John 14:6 IS THE CAUSE of God not causing people to come to God".
Praise Lord Jesus for His lovingkindness, that God causes us children of God to come to God! Praise God for God's strong right arm saving us unworthy depraved wretches from the wrath of God - to God be all the glory!!!
This Christ founded concept "God causes man to come to God" occurs in more than just John 14:6. The Lord also says it where Jesus says every good deed (including the deed of practicing the Truth and the deed of coming to God) of every Christian is exclusively caused by God with “
he who practices the truth comes to the Light, so that his deeds may be manifested as having been wrought in God” (
John 3:21); in other words, every Christian's good deeds are not caused by the Christian, but, rather, every Christian's good deeds are caused by God to the glory of God (John 15:8)!
Where, BEFORE, Luther and Calvin, was there the belief that free will did not exist?
Could you please give a source?
John 11:45
45Therefore many of the Jews who came to Mary, and saw what He had done, believed in Him.
They believed when they SAW WHAT JESUS HAD DONE....
This is the reason they believed.
The Apostle John does NOT state that their "
saw" was the "
reason" (aka "
cause") of their "
believing" in his blessed testimony of "
Therefore many of the Jews who came to Mary, and saw what He had done, believed in Him", and John certainly did not attribute this "
believing" to free-will because John knew the Word of God attributes their "
believing" to the act of God with "
this is the work of God, that you believe in Him whom He has sent" (John 6:29).
Your thoughts extend to mean that not only is their "
believing" caused by their "
saw" but also because they "
came to Mary" which puts you in the "not by Christ alone" camp.
You inquired "
Could you please give a source?", yet God caused me to address that very question before you asked in the post to which you replied:
The linguistic examination of because in John 14:6, above, demonstrates that the Author and Perfecter of the faith, Jesus Christ, the Founder of Christianity, says 1,500 years-ish before Luther and Calvin were born that God exclusively causes persons of God's choosing to come to God (John 14:6).
Lord Jesus Christ is the only source that matters,
wondering.
Oh my.
You receive your pay every week.
It is handed to you and you receive it.
IF you didn't want it, you just wouldn't take it.
And you wouldn't RECEIVE it.
If you RECEIVE something, it means you ACCEPTED it.
No dictionary necessary.
Words matter, for thus says the Word "
by your words you will be justified, and by your words you will be damned" (Matthew 12:37).
An uninvolved innocent bystander received an immediately fatal gunshot wound to the back of his head with the first shot of a surprise battle between rival gangs at the crowded loud shopping mall food court. Some bystanders waiting in line for food with their backs to the escalating violence across the food court were not aware of the battle until it was over.
The dead bystanderer did not accept the gunshot fatal wound. The dead bystander did not have time to accept the fatal gunshot wound. The dead bystander received the fatal gunshot wound, and he died immediately.
You lied in your post's opening word, and now you lie about the concept that the word "receive" defines when you wrote "
If you RECEIVE something, it means you ACCEPTED it"!
Receive does not mean accept, nor does accept mean receive. A dictionary is necessary for you; otherwise, you end up with "
worship in vain" (Matthew 15:9).
Receive conceptualizes an event that unavoidablely occurs from a source to a destination.
Since you do not receive the true meaning of "receive", then you fail to accurately receive the Apostle John's passage
that you brought up in this exchange:
But as many as received Him, to them He gave the right to become children of God, to those who believe in His name, who were born, not of blood nor of the will of the flesh nor of the will of man, but of God
(John 1:12-13).
continued to
post #202