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Was Adam imparted free will from the beginning of Creation?

I think this is error: "Jesus Christ, though capable of sinning in his human nature, possessed a divine nature that made such a thing unquestionable. Not because he could not sin, but because he would not sin."

Let me know what you 🤔 think
 

Let me know what you 🤔 think
There is a lot of different and conflicting stuff there. Was there something specific? My position should be pretty clear and you should be able to know what I think of these issues.
 
It doesn't say Adam was ordained to sin..and you can't make it say what it doesn't because you want it to.
Its implied since Jesus was already ordained to die for sin that Adam would bring into the world.

Sometimes truth in scripture may not be something word for word, but it's implied and or consonant or consistent with clear scripture in other places !
 
Its implied since Jesus was already ordained to die for sin that Adam would bring into the world.

Sometimes truth in scripture may not be something word for word, but it's implied and or consonant or consistent with clear scripture in other places !
" implied" is your opinion. And it's also illogical.

Because God knows what someone will do in certain cases does not mean that person didn't have choices and choose. He could have chose to stay in the will of God but he chose not to.
To say it was preordained that man would sin because Christ was preordained to take away sin is a fallacy and renders your argument invalid.
 
" implied" is your opinion. And it's also illogical.

Because God knows what someone will do in certain cases does not mean that person didn't have choices and choose. He could have chose to stay in the will of God but he chose not to.
To say it was preordained that man would sin because Christ was preordained to take away sin is a fallacy and renders your argument invalid.
Its implied since Jesus was already ordained to die for sin that Adam would bring into the world.

1 Pet 1:20

20 Who verily was foreordained before the foundation of the world, but was manifest in these last times for you,

Sometimes truth in scripture may not be something word for word, but it's implied and or consonant or consistent with clear scripture in other places !

Adams choice to sin was also foreordained in conformity to Christ having been foreordained.
 
Was Adam imparted free will from the beginning of Creation?

The Word of God indicates no based upon both scriptural text and context.

The following is carefully presented proof establishing Adam was formed with intent not endowed with free will.

  • God issued prophecy about man eating the fruit (Genesis 2:17)
    AT the time God commanded the man, Adam, not to eat of the tree
    AND the consequence of disobedience is declared - that is that death of the man would result in eating from the tree
    YET a command does not convey ability
    BUT the language contains a prophetic construct indicating assurance of occurrence - "for in the day that you eat" - the "for" is promissory
    NOT a conditional logic construct such as "if in the day that you eat"
    IN fact, the English word "for" is translated from the Hebrew word כִּ֗י (ki)
    AND the Hebrew word כִּ֗י (ki) contains the meanings of these English words "that", "for", "when" (Strong's Hebrew: 3588. כִּ֗י (ki) -- that, for, when)
    THEREFORE the word "when" fits where the word "for" resides in Genesis 2:17
    THUS the phrase "when in the day that you eat" is an accurate translation for Genesis 2:17
    SO this confirms the promissory nature, the prophecy of man eating the fruit, with the word "for"/"when" in Genesis 2:17
    AND this imposes contextual certainty indicating God's foreknowledge over the matter described in Genesis 2:17
    SO there is no free will indicated for Adam
    AND the firm fact is established
    THAT God reigns in the affairs of man (Daniel 4:34-35)
  • The attribute of man being created in the image according to the likeness of God
  • Attributes/Characteristics Compared And Contrasted
    • The attribute of man being created in the image according to the likeness of God
      SINCE Adam was made in the image according to the likeness of God (Genesis 1:26)
      THEN some persons of the creation (creatures) argue that specific facility was given to Adam
      IN particular God willpowering purported "free will" into man, specifically a free will into man in the likeness God's will, during the creation of Adam
      THEN Adam could not have used free will to perform evil against God
      BECAUSE God will not use willpower in order to perform evil against God's self (Psalm 5:4, Psalm 92:15, Deuteronomy 32:4)
      THEREFORE it follows that man could not use free will in order to perform evil against God
      COMPARITIVELY this point's basis conveys that Adam who was made in the likeness of God (Genesis 1:26) could not use an Adam's will created by God inside Adam which is a duplicate of God's will (likeness of God's will) because God's will won't work against God so then Adams will could not work against God and since Adam disobeyed God, it is with certainty that the attribute of Adam's will was not made a duplicate of God's will (likeness of God's will).
      1. The logical extension of free will on this basis results in man possessing expanded facilities beyond God's facilities
      2. God is Creator; on the other hand, man is creature
      3. Largely, I use free will to mean man choosing toward God, emphatically Lord Jesus Christ.
      4. Scripture does not include the mention of God endowing Adam with free will.
      5. Man's free will is a precept of man leading to worship in vain (Matthew 15:9)
    • Adam as part of God's Plan of Redemption through the Christ for mankind before the foundation of the world
      SINCE God saw creation was very good on the 6th Day (Genesis 1:31)
      AND God's Plan of Redemption through the Christ for mankind is good (Ephesians 1:1-14, Ephesians 2:13)
      AND no person can thwart God's Plan (Job 42:2)
      THEN a free will Adam could not have been roaming the Garden of Eden with the ability to choose to obey God's command not to eat of the tree of the knowledge of good and evil (Genesis 2:17)
      SINCE the only command carrying a punishment was the prohibition upon Adam against eating of the tree of the knowledge of good and evil
      THUS a free will Adam could have disrupted God's Plan of Redemption through the Christ for mankind
      SO God could not conclude with certainty by declaring everything was good on the sixth day with a free will Adam in control roaming the Garden of Eden
      THEREFORE it follows that Adam could not be endowed with the attribute of free will
    • The timeline of Adam knowing good and evil
      BEFORE Adam and Eve ate from the tree of the knowledge of good and evil
      THEN Adam and Eve knew not good and evil
      AFTER Adam and Eve ate from the tree of the knowledge of good and evil
      THEN Adam and Eve knew good and evil
      FOR the delineation is clarified when God said "Behold, the man has become like one of Us, knowing good and evil" (Genesis 3:22)
      YET based on the Word of God saying "has become" recorded in Genesis 3:22
      THEN Adam did not know good and evil before eating from the tree of the knowledge of good and evil
      SO Adam did not know good and evil when God issued the command "from the tree of the knowledge of good and evil you shall not eat, for in the day that you eat from it you will surely die!" Genesis 2:17)
      THEREFORE at the time of eating, Adam listened (perceived) and followed her word about the tree of the knowledge of good and evil
      FOR God said "Because you have listened to the voice of your wife, and have eaten from the tree about which I commanded you, saying, 'You shall not eat from it'" (Genesis 3:17)
      SO Adam listened to Eve and Adam ate from the tree prior to knowing good and evil
      AND a person does good by obeying God; on the other hand, a person does evil by disobeying God
      SO free will choosing of good or choosing of evil is not the context
      YET action is the context
      SINCE good and evil are not known to Adam prior to eating from the tree of the knowledge of good and evil
      THEREFORE it follows that Adam was not endowed with the attribute of free will
    • An inherently good Adam would have assuredly and absolutely excluded eating of the tree of the knowledge of good and evil
      BECAUSE an inherently good Adam would have acted in the good way of obedience to God's command (Genesis 2:16-17)
      WITH the good way being God's Way (John 14:6)
      YET "No one is good except God alone" (Mark 10:18)
      AND it is written "God saw all that He had made, and behold, it was very good. And there was evening and there was morning, the sixth day" (Genesis 1:31)
      NOTE in "it was very good", the word "it" is grammatically a third person singular thus referring to the entirety of creation being constructed well (good) on course with God's Plan of Redemption through the Christ for mankind before the foundation of the world (Ephesians 1:1-14, Ephesians 2:13)
      YET the word "it" is not third person plural as in "they were very good" of which a third person plural is required in order to refer to an individual such as Adam or the Devil the Serpent
      AND the Word of God specifically excludes Adam from being good with "No one is good except God alone" (Mark 10:18)
      SO the spirit of antichrist preaches that Adam with all mankind as good for any amount of time thus nullifying the need for the Savior
      BEHOLD that God saw the whole package, the complete creation, the "all" that He had made, that it was very good
      BUT God did not specify how the aggregate (all) that He had made was very good therein
      AND God did not specify any constituents of creation as being inherently good therein
      AND God creating "all that He had made" for God in Jesus Christ to come to earth to save evil man is very good
      SO with certainty, God's Plan of Redemption through the Christ for mankind before the foundation of the world is very good
    • The attribute of "joining" - marriage
      1. Lord Jesus says a topically very profound statement of "from the beginning of creation, [God] made them male and female. For this reason a man shall leave his father and mother, and the two shall become one flesh; so they are no longer two, but one flesh. What therefore God has joined together let no man separate." (Mark 10:6-9)
      2. "God has joined together" is a clear reference by Jesus to Christ and the Bride of Christ, that is, the Assembly of God
      3. "God has joined together" is a clear reference by Jesus to marriage between "male and female" (creatures both)
      4. "God has joined together" is a clear reference by Jesus to Adam and Eve, the man and the woman
      5. God does the joining, while, on the other hand, man and woman are only the joyful recipients
      6. The facility of "joining" is not attributed to man and/or woman
      7. The facility of "joining" is attributed to God
      THEREFORE God exclusively causes individuals to join into the Assembly of God.

For expanded topic coverage, please see this integral essay Almighty God's Awesome Creation In Amazing Splendor.

If anyone venture a reply to this thread, I encourage diligent care for it is written "do not add to His words or He will reprove you, and you will be proved a liar" (Proverbs 30:6).

May the Lord abound mercy and understanding and strength and grace in we His own for the Day approaches rapidly!
The belief man has Free will is a myth of man and one of the worst failings of his human doctrine.
 
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