Drew
Member
Hello jg:
The first 80% of your post seems to boil down to an appeal to old arguments that have bean addressed over and over. We have shown conclusively that there is Biblical precedent for the use of the term "forever" as a poetic exaggeration. Here is yet another example from 1 Samuel:
"Then the man Elkanah went up with all his household to offer to the LORD the yearly sacrifice and pay his vow.
But Hannah did not go up, for she said to her husband, "I will not go up until the child is weaned; then I will bring him, that he may appear before the LORD and stay there forever."
If you wish to argue that the "there" in the last phrase is not a physical place (but is rather a reference to "heaven"), I think that is a debate you will lose, but we'll see.
It appears that you are trying make a theology out these limited references to "eternal torment" when there are so many other texts that indicate that the end of impenitent man is death. I will let the reader judge between the two following options:
1. Accept the use of "poetic exaggeration" in respect to references to "forever" in texts like Revelation 20, with such acceptance justified by clear Bibical precedent for such exaggeration (as in Isaiah 34 and 1 Samuel and Jude) and defer to the relatively lengthy list of texts which assert that impetinent man will "be no more"; or
2. Take the "eternal torment" texts literally (there are only a few of them), and redefine "death" (as per Romans 6:23) to mean "eternal torment", redefine "be no more" to mean "have your body be no more", dismiss as misleading all the Biblical references to clear physical processes which result in something being reduced to nothing, and decide that Paul's glorious 1 Corinthians 15 text about being "made alive" at the time of the resurrection to really means to "wrap an already fully conscious soul in a new suit of imperishable flesh".
So while it would support jg's argument to force the annihilationist to admit to a transition from a state of non-existence into life (this indeed would be problematic for the annihilationist), this text clearly shows that the transition in question occurs in this life - at the time we love the brethren. So there is nothing for the annihilationist to justify. If the text suggested that we transition from death to life after being annihilated, jg would indeed have a point.
But the text shows that the transition, if it occurs at all, take place during this life.
The first 80% of your post seems to boil down to an appeal to old arguments that have bean addressed over and over. We have shown conclusively that there is Biblical precedent for the use of the term "forever" as a poetic exaggeration. Here is yet another example from 1 Samuel:
"Then the man Elkanah went up with all his household to offer to the LORD the yearly sacrifice and pay his vow.
But Hannah did not go up, for she said to her husband, "I will not go up until the child is weaned; then I will bring him, that he may appear before the LORD and stay there forever."
If you wish to argue that the "there" in the last phrase is not a physical place (but is rather a reference to "heaven"), I think that is a debate you will lose, but we'll see.
It appears that you are trying make a theology out these limited references to "eternal torment" when there are so many other texts that indicate that the end of impenitent man is death. I will let the reader judge between the two following options:
1. Accept the use of "poetic exaggeration" in respect to references to "forever" in texts like Revelation 20, with such acceptance justified by clear Bibical precedent for such exaggeration (as in Isaiah 34 and 1 Samuel and Jude) and defer to the relatively lengthy list of texts which assert that impetinent man will "be no more"; or
2. Take the "eternal torment" texts literally (there are only a few of them), and redefine "death" (as per Romans 6:23) to mean "eternal torment", redefine "be no more" to mean "have your body be no more", dismiss as misleading all the Biblical references to clear physical processes which result in something being reduced to nothing, and decide that Paul's glorious 1 Corinthians 15 text about being "made alive" at the time of the resurrection to really means to "wrap an already fully conscious soul in a new suit of imperishable flesh".
Let's see what the text actually says here. The evidence of having passed from death to life is the "loving the brethren". So this transition can and does occur during "this life". Jg's argument cannot work precisely because we know that people are not in an annihilated state when they transition to from "not loving the brethren" to "loving the brethren"jgredline said:1 John3:13-15
13 Do not marvel, my brethren, if the world hates you. 14 We know that we have passed from death to life, because we love the brethren. He who does not love his brother abides in death. 15 Whoever hates his brother is a murderer, and you know that no murderer has eternal life abiding in him.
If death is what the annihalsit say it is and it means to ''destroy'', then how is it that we can pass from death to life?...if we have been destroyed...Does it make sense no......The wages of sin is death....The body dies, but the soul will live in torment forever and ever.....
So while it would support jg's argument to force the annihilationist to admit to a transition from a state of non-existence into life (this indeed would be problematic for the annihilationist), this text clearly shows that the transition in question occurs in this life - at the time we love the brethren. So there is nothing for the annihilationist to justify. If the text suggested that we transition from death to life after being annihilated, jg would indeed have a point.
But the text shows that the transition, if it occurs at all, take place during this life.