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What do you think?

To be honest guibox that is a very weak explanation of that "parable". The fact that it doesn't say that it was the soul or spirit of Lazarus and the Rich Man that went to Hades is a moot point. The very obvious and most plausible reason is that everyone Jesus was talking to knew that it wasn't the "whole man" - that was not the Jewish concept of death.

If you still want to argue that, then you must explain how it is that angels carried Lazarus to Abrahams side and the meaning of "The rich man also died and was buried, and in Hades, being in torment...". Obviously, it wasn't the "whole man".

Sadly, everyone keeps ignoring the inconsistencies both he and I continually bring up.
But you keep ignoring the inconsistencies that I and everyone else continually brings up. How is it that God can destroy the body and then cast one into hell? That is totally consistent with the passage in Luke 16 but very inconsistent with your position. The Rich Man "being in torment" is consistent with Luke 12:46-48.
 
Free said:
The very obvious and most plausible reason is that everyone Jesus was talking to knew that it wasn't the "whole man" - that was not the Jewish concept of death.
This very morning I went to a lecture delivered by a Christian who is also a retired professor from a local university. While his topic was the resurrection of Jesus, I approached him after the lecture and asked him what he understood to be the Hebrew view of the nature of the human person.

He replied with precisely the view that guibox and I have been advocating for - the Hebrews considered the human person to be indivisible into "parts". Without any prompting from me at all, he went on to lament that the majority of Christians look at material written by the Hebrews and interpret it using Greek dualist concepts.
 
Free said:
How is it that God can destroy the body and then cast one into hell?
If you are refering to the following text from Matthew:

"Do not be afraid of those who kill the body but cannot kill the soul. Rather, be afraid of the One who can destroy both soul and body in hell"

This has not been ignored. An explanation of how this text works with the annihilationist perpective has been provided in this very thread. Twice! It is this explanation that has been left unrefuted. Here it is again:

Drew said:
This text works perfectly well with a conceptualization man where the soul is not a separate part of man.

Here is how this works. Let's speculate that the term "soul" refers to the "blueprint" or the "specification" of a human person who is, in fact, indivisible into components. If man kills the body, God can still resurrect that person, because God "knows" who that person was (before they were killed) and can certainly reconstitute him at the time of the general resurrection using this "blueprint". The point - man can only kill the body, he cannot "erase" the information that God holds about that person. Is such a blueprint a separate "part" of a human person? Of course not.

God, on the other hand, can indeed utterly do away with a person, by electing to "erase" or "blot out" that person in his / her totality - by doing away with both body and "soul". On this view, the destruction of the soul is God's judgement that the wages of sin is indeed death (non-existence) as His word clearly teaches in Romans 6:23 and elsewhere. On the view that the "soul" is this blueprint for a human being, and God does away with that person by erasing the blueprint along with the body - the Matthew text works perfectly well with this.

This is entirely consistent with the various Biblical texts about the soul. Now perhaps some of these other texts also can be made to work with the "immortal soul" position as well. On the other hand, I would like to know how an immortal soul can be "in the blood" as per Levticus 17:11. This text, in my opinion, is powerful support for the inseperability of the "soul" and the body. If the soul is in the blood, it (the soul), it is deeply and intimately identified with the physiclaty of a created being.

Free, you claim that guibox has ignored the "How is it that God can destroy the body and then cast one into hell" issue. Perhaps he, as an individual poster has not addressed this (guibox, please set me straight if I am wrong about this). But it has been addressed directly twice (now thrice) in this very thread.

At the risk of guessing the thoughts of others, I will suggest that the above explanation will be met with "Yes, but the soul and the body are separate components of the human person, so this "blueprint" explanation cannot be correct".

To think that way is to engage in circular reasoning, unless this soul-body distinction is established by other texts.
 
guibox said:
Are you going to also quote the Catholic catechism for this fine discourse of Greek theology? - because it sounds right out of the Dark Ages and definitely not out of the scriptures. Satan is not in 'hell' and there is no 'torment' going on. Tartaros is not Hades and Hades is not Gehenna. The wicked are reserved unto the day of judgment to be punished (2 Peter 2:9) when and only when they are resurrected, not at their physical death (John 5:28,29 Revelation 20:5, 13-15). And they definitely aren't sharing bunk beds with Satan and his minions.

Gui….First, I will say this, While I am not a catholic, at least they have their theology straight when it comes to the doctrine of Hell…Something the SDA church has all wrong….Secondly what you are saying is that Jesus lied in Matt 25:41-46…You are bordering in on blasphemy of the Holy Spirit, If you have not done so already…For you are doing what the Pharissses did to Jesus….Thirdly once it is all said and done, those have been born again will have ‘’new’’ bodies, not these old things we have here on earth…Those who have not been born again, there soul will be in torment forever…..

2:pet 2:9…. The Gr. word for “temptations†means “an attack with intent to destroy†and refers to severe divine judgment. The pattern of the plan of God is to rescue the godly before His judgment falls on the wicked. to reserve the unjust. The wicked are kept like prisoners awaiting the sentencing that will send them to their eternal prison (verse 4…For if God did not spare the angels who sinned, but cast them down to hell and delivered them into chains of darkness, to be reserved for judgment ). The final judgment on the wicked is called the Great White Throne Judgment (Rev. 20:11–15) where all the ungodly of all the ages will be raised, judged finally, and cast into the lake of fire….

John 5:28-29
28 Do not marvel at this; for the hour is coming in which all who are in the graves will hear His voice 29 and come forth those who have done good, to the resurrection of life, and those who have done evil, to the resurrection of condemnation.

Jesus said His hearers should not be amazed at His claim that right now those who believe pass from death into life (v. 24 “Most assuredly, I say to you, he who hears My word and believes in Him who sent Me has everlasting life, and shall not come into judgment, but has passed from death into life.)
, because in the future there will be a universal physical resurrection at His command. This universal resurrection is clearly taught in (Daniel 12:1-2 12 “At that time Michael shall stand up,
The great prince who stands watch over the sons of your people;
And there shall be a time of trouble,
Such as never was since there was a nation,
Even to that time.
And at that time your people shall be delivered,
Every one who is found written in the book.
2 And many of those who sleep in the dust of the earth shall awake,
Some to everlasting life,
Some to shame and everlasting contempt.)
. Other passages show that the resurrection to life, “the first resurrection,†will occur in stages (the church at the Rapture, and Tribulation saints at the Lord’s second coming at the end of the Tribulation), and that the resurrection of those who will be condemned will occur at the end of the Millennium (Rev. 20:11-15). John 5:28-29 is one of the few passages in this Gospel which expressly teaches eschatology…..And Guibox, Soul Sleep is another false doctrine…of the SDA church….

Guibox…Doing what you do best..Taking verses out of context…well that will not work with me…..
Boy, I sure would love to see the biblical proof for this. It isn't in 2 Corinthians 5:8 which supports the bodily resurrection of 1 Corinthians 15.
Yes, I should have been more clear here…..Let me explain it a little bit better. I made the mistake of assuming you knew this stuff…..but then again I sould have know better.. So lets take at 2 cor 5:8 in context… With this perspective Paul could be confident (See verse 5:6, 8; and 7:16) and encouraged (see verse 4:1, 16), even in his period of mortality. These verses (5:6-8) recapitulate the theme first discussed in 4:16-18. To be at home in the body means to dwell in “the earthly tent†(5:1), to be outwardly “wasting away†(4:16), to be in a state of mortality away from the immediate presence of the Lord (see 1 Cor. 13:12).
What sustained Paul was the realization that this was a temporary and transitory state (see 2 Cor. 4:18). He focused not on present but on future conditions, not on the seen but the unseen. To live this way is to live by faith, not by sight.

And I'm still wondering how you can explain how 'the spirit goes back to God who gave' it is NEVER used ONLY for the 'righteous man'. You still haven't explained the fact that Ecclesiastes 3:19-20 and Ecclesiastes 12:7 say that it is the 'spirit' of ALL men that goes back to God.
Guibox…I have explained these verses to u and your buddies, but you choose to ignore them…First lets look at what Solomon is saying in context…..
18 ecc 3:18-22 I said in my heart, “Concerning the condition of the sons of men, God tests them, that they may see that they themselves are like animals.†19 For what happens to the sons of men also happens to animals; one thing befalls them: as one dies, so dies the other. Surely, they all have one breath; man has no advantage over animals, for all is vanity. 20 All go to one place: all are from the dust, and all return to dust. 21 Who knows the spirit of the sons of men, which goes upward, and the spirit of the animal, which goes down to the earth? 22 So I perceived that nothing is better than that a man should rejoice in his own works, for that is his heritage. For who can bring him to see what will happen after him?

3:18-20. The connection of verses 18-21 with the preceding is not well reflected in most English translations. The phrase as for men means literally, “for the sake of ½ because of men†and is taken by most theologians to refer back to the injustice mentioned in verse 16: “injustice is both for the sake of and because of men.†Thus Solomon affirmed a second purpose for injustice, namely, that by it God shows people that they are like the animals (lit., “they are animals, they with respect to themselvesâ€Â). This does not say that people are nothing more than animals, with no immortal souls. It does suggest that people, like animals, die….. They have a common mortality, as Ecclesiastes 3:19-20 indicates.
Both people and animals come from the same dust of the earth, are animated by the same life breath (see Job 34:14-15; Ps. 104:29), and go to the same place, that is, return to the dust . So Solomon argued that man has no advantage over an animal, for both are transitory….So if anything these verses support and bolster my position….Look at verse 21… Who knows the spirit of the sons of men, which goes upward, and the spirit of the animal, which goes down to the earth?...Again here is a good example of the spirit and soul being used interchangeably…

Ecc 12:7 Then the dust will return to the earth as it was,
And the spirit will return to God who gave it.
12:7. The dust of the body returns to the ground it came from and the breath of life (spirit and “breath†are translations of the same Heb. word rûaḥ which I know you know…) to God who gave it. This obviously alludes to part of the Creation account (Gen. 2:7; man was made from the dust of the ground and was given breath). This makes it evident that Solomon was not referring to the return of individual human spirits to God for judgment. Similar descriptions of death (as a dissolution of the body and the withdrawal of the breath of God) are referred to in Job 34:14-15 and Psalm 104:29-30 A comparison of these passages with Ecclesiastes 12:7 makes it clear that the description of the return of the breath of life given here does not contradict 3:20. There Solomon, writing about the common destiny of people and animals, had denied the possibility of demonstrating a difference in the disposition of their life breaths, that is, whether a human’s breath went upward to God and whether an animal’s went down to the earth.

So tell me, jg...are you promoting universalism? Because if you see both Stephen's and Christ's 'spirit that is given to God' as their immortal souls, you must say that both the righteous and wicked are going to heaven for this is what it says happens to the 'spirit'. you must also explain how in the world Christ's soul went to heaven when He was in the grave, resurrected and THEN 'ascended to the Father'. You also ignore that the Bible clarifies what it means to 'give up the spirit'. In Jesus' case the scriptures says 'And Jesus breathed His last'. In Stephen's case it says 'And Stephen fell asleep'.

Brushing aside this verse to stick to you guns doesn't help your case at all except in your own mind.
Promoting universism…LOL….ok….As I mentioned before but is worth mentioning again.. ...I could not think of a single group of folks who hold to the anniahalist position that was NOT a cult....Every sect that Holds to this position is a cult....The JW=CULT, SDA = CULT, UR FOLK=CULT, The Christadelphians = CULT....So yes the reader who is lurking needs to read and understand that this cultic theology is a tool of the dragon Satan himself....By the way…You are an SDA correct?...... lol

Again, your convulted logic and misinterpretation of what the 'soul' and 'spirit' is in the Bible creates complete contradictions that you cannot explain and simply ignore.
Guibox
Again...i mean this sincerly...I Pray that one day you will be born again and u will not be asking for a sip of water....You see, by your logic since you are realy is a monostic creature it is not possible to be born again...You see when one is born again the ''Spirit'' OF God indwells the person..When this happens we are no longer a dichotomy, but a trichotomy....Although some will say that we become a dichotomy and our spirit is awakened...Either way, there is scriptual support for both the Dichotomy and the Trichotomy....But there is none for the monism that you hold to....You see, you have no choice but to believe in monism , because of your false belief in annihalism...For you to believe in a dual or tri would mean you have to accept the the soul/spirit is seperate from the body...This is how I know you are not born again....

Lets take this one step further....If a person is demon possessed by your interpretation this person is ''one'' with the demon...So what happens when a person is freed from the demon possession?.... or do you not believe in demon possesion either ....?????


And at the rate you are ignoring the inconsistencies you've created and ignored and can't explain the clear biblical evidence both linguistically and contextually that man is a wholistic being and is given immortality at the resurrection and not at his physical death, then it looks like this ignoring will go into serious effect soon enough.

Quite the opposite. I have proven along with many others that we are not a monostic being....If you really had the guts and the knowledge you think you do, you have taken up my offer to debate this false doctrine of yours in the debate forum, instead you choose this very public forum so u can hide....Well, this is cool too... as drew said, perhaps more folk will read it....

I will leave you with this parting verse....of an actual account......
24 “Then he cried and said, ‘Father Abraham, have mercy on me, and send Lazarus that he may dip the tip of his finger in water and cool my tongue; for I am tormented in this flame.’
 
Drew said:
This very morning I went to a lecture delivered by a Christian who is also a retired professor from a local university. While his topic was the resurrection of Jesus, I approached him after the lecture and asked him what he understood to be the Hebrew view of the nature of the human person.

He replied with precisely the view that guibox and I have been advocating for - the Hebrews considered the human person to be indivisible into "parts". Without any prompting from me at all, he went on to lament that the majority of Christians look at material written by the Hebrews and interpret it using Greek dualist concepts.

Drew
Who was this ''theologian''? So we may research him...
 
jg, after all your continual rambling you still never answered any questions, rather, like always, willing to play the cult card to hide your insecurity in truly addressing the facts.

The fact of ecclesiastes here is that the same word: ruach is 'pneuma' in the NT and is in all the instances used for 'spirit'. The context of Ecclesiastes 3 and 12 use the same word used to denote Christ and Stephen's 'spirit going back to God'.

This is the foundation of the theology that 'my soul goes to heaven' at death. It is based on these references to the 'spirit going back to God' as man's 'spirit' in him is what makes him an immortal being according to traditional interpretation.

So how is it possible that the ruach that goes back to God (which is in heaven) is:

1) Not going down to Sheol or Hades but up to heaven?

2) The 'ruach' of all mankind and not that of the righteous?

According to number one, the traditionalist is in a quandary for they must then show a complete contradiction.

According to the traditional view of 1 Peter 3 that Christ 'went to the spirits in prison' to preach to them, this was Christ freeing their 'souls' from Sheol to bring them to heaven.

This cannot be if the spirit is already given up to God who gave it which tradition interprets as 'my soul goes to heaven'.

The problem doesn't lie in the scriptures but the insistence to interpret 'ruach/pneuma' to be the 'thinking cogitating essence of man' that is 'released as a soul from the body' to live on its own.

As for your take on 2 corinthians 5, you obviously missed the reference to putting on the heavenly tent which is the spiritual body which 'swallows up mortality' which according to 1 Corinthians 15 is at the second coming when 'death is swallowed up in victory'.

2 Corinthians 5 is Paul talking about the hope that he will put on immortality apart from this earthly tent.

If you read your bible properly, jg, you will see that this does not occur at death as a disembodied soul, but at the resurrection as a whole person. Nowhere either lingustically or contextually does Paul mention the word 'psuche' or 'pneuma' in this passage...but he does talk about the resurrection body.

As for you worrying about my soul, don't worry. It is not I that has made the word of God a Catholic/Greek philosophy book filled with myriads of contradictions, presuppositions and plain fallacies that are foreign.

My salvation is secure as the word of God has made it plain to me the truth.
 
jgredline said:
2:pet 2:9…. The Gr. word for “temptations†means “an attack with intent to destroy†and refers to severe divine judgment. The pattern of the plan of God is to rescue the godly before His judgment falls on the wicked. to reserve the unjust. The wicked are kept like prisoners awaiting the sentencing that will send them to their eternal prison
I am pretty sure I am correct in recalling that both you and Solo believe that the Luke 16 is a factual account of a real event that has already taken place. Am I correct?

If this is so - if this is a real account of a real event - then one cannot deny the truth of the following: At some point more than 2000 years ago, there was a real rich man (soul, body, whole person - it does not matter to my point) in conscious torment in flames.

Do you deny this?

If you do not, how do square this with your statement that the wicked are "awaiting the sentencing"? Is not the rich man already in flames? How, then, has he not really already been sentenced?
 
I assume that the "eternal torment" believers assert that, at physical death, unredeemed men go to some sort of state where they are in a state of conscious torment. In fact, I am pretty sure that a central pillar in this argument has been the Luke 16 account - you claim that this is a factual account, an event that has already taken place. So the rich man was in torment in flames thousands of years ago (and presumably still is).

I believe that all "eternal torment" supporters in this thread also believe that unredeemed will be subject to future judgement and then subjected to eternal torment in flames.

How is this future judgement anything more than a mere formality for the rich man who is already, by your own words, in a conscious state of torment in flames?

Are you not forced into one of the following positions?

1. The rich man's disembodied soul is in the lake of fire right now in torment in flames. In the future, he will be plucked out, given some sort of body (or maybe not given a body, I am not sure where you guys stand on this), then judged, and then tossed back into the same place of flames.

2. The rich man's disembodied soul is in Hades right now, but still, by your belief that Luke 16 is factual account, in torment in flames. In the future, he will be plucked out, given some sort of body (or maybe not given a body, I am not sure where you guys stand on this), and judged, and then tossed into a new place - the lake of fire - where he will still be in torment in flames.

Neither of these positions make any sense (at least to me - what do the rest of you think - do these situations make sense to you?). So presumably you believe something else.

Please provide your position on what happens to the various components of an unredeemed person from the moment of their death to their eternal "end state".

In the spirit of equality, I will given my understanding of the "timeline" in a later post.
 
jgredline said:
Drew
Who was this ''theologian''? So we may research him...
Sorry, I do not remember his name. However, he is not a theologian - he is a historian.
 
I make a proposal that all further posting from Solo, jg, Drew and myself cease until Drew's above questions and comments are fully addressed and answered linguistically and contextually from the bible.

What's the sense of all of us babbling on when the questions aren't being answered?

Agreed?
 
guibox said:
jg, after all your continual rambling you still never answered any questions, rather, like always, willing to play the cult card to hide your insecurity in truly addressing the facts.
Hmmm, I find it funny LOL that you would accuse me of playing the cult card, when it was you who asked if I was promoting UR....i mearly answered it with a truth that you can't deny or defend....Here I will repost it for you...
Promoting universism…LOL….ok….As I mentioned before but is worth mentioning again.. ...I could not think of a single group of folks who hold to the anniahalist position that was NOT a cult....Every sect that Holds to this position is a cult....The JW=CULT, SDA = CULT, UR FOLK=CULT, The Christadelphians = CULT....So yes the reader who is lurking needs to read and understand that this cultic theology is a tool of the dragon Satan himself....By the way…You are an SDA correct?...... lol ...Now if you do not fall into this catagory, let me know and I will recant my statement....


The fact of ecclesiastes here is that the same word: ruach is 'pneuma' in the NT and is in all the instances used for 'spirit'. The context of Ecclesiastes 3 and 12 use the same word used to denote Christ and Stephen's 'spirit going back to God'.

This is the foundation of the theology that 'my soul goes to heaven' at death. It is based on these references to the 'spirit going back to God' as man's 'spirit' in him is what makes him an immortal being according to traditional interpretation.

So how is it possible that the ruach that goes back to God (which is in heaven) is:

1) Not going down to Sheol or Hades but up to heaven?

2) The 'ruach' of all mankind and not that of the righteous?

According to number one, the traditionalist is in a quandary for they must then show a complete contradiction.

According to the traditional view of 1 Peter 3 that Christ 'went to the spirits in prison' to preach to them, this was Christ freeing their 'souls' from Sheol to bring them to heaven.

This cannot be if the spirit is already given up to God who gave it which tradition interprets as 'my soul goes to heaven'.

The problem doesn't lie in the scriptures but the insistence to interpret 'ruach/pneuma' to be the 'thinking cogitating essence of man' that is 'released as a soul from the body' to live on its own.
I have already addressed these questions and you obviously skipped over them or you do not understand them because with out the Holy Spirit they are foolishness to you....
“Eye has not seen, nor ear heard,
Nor have entered into the heart of man
The things which God has prepared for those who love Him.â€Â
The natural man does not receive the things of the Spirit of God, for they are foolishness to him; nor can he know them, because they are spiritually discerned




As for your take on 2 corinthians 5, you obviously missed the reference to putting on the heavenly tent which is the spiritual body which 'swallows up mortality' which according to 1 Corinthians 15 is at the second coming when 'death is swallowed up in victory'.

2 Corinthians 5 is Paul talking about the hope that he will put on immortality apart from this earthly tent.

If you read your bible properly, jg, you will see that this does not occur at death as a disembodied soul, but at the resurrection as a whole person. Nowhere either lingustically or contextually does Paul mention the word 'psuche' or 'pneuma' in this passage...but he does talk about the resurrection body.
Gui
go back and read my post, you will notice that I covered it...

p.s.
I noticed you also glossed over this....

Lets take this one step further....If a person is demon possessed by your interpretation this person is ''one'' with the demon...So what happens when a person is freed from the demon possession?.... or do you not believe in demon possession either ....?????

17 And He came down with them and stood on a level place with a crowd of His disciples and a great multitude of people from all Judea and Jerusalem, and from the seacoast of Tyre and Sidon, who came to hear Him and be healed of their diseases, 18 as well as those who were tormented with unclean spirits. And they were healed. 19 And the whole multitude sought to touch Him, for power went out from Him and healed them all.







 
Drew said:
He replied with precisely the view that guibox and I have been advocating for - the Hebrews considered the human person to be indivisible into "parts". Without any prompting from me at all, he went on to lament that the majority of Christians look at material written by the Hebrews and interpret it using Greek dualist concepts.
Firstly, his answer and your position both presume that the Greek dualist concepts are wrong.

Secondly, both also ignore Hellenism which could very well have influenced the writings of Scripture. From a previous argument of yours, this would mean that the dualistic concepts were inspired by the Holy Spirit.

Drew said:
This has not been ignored. An explanation of how this text works with the annihilationist perpective has been provided in this very thread. Twice! It is this explanation that has been left unrefuted.
I haven't been following this thread, my bad.

Now I will refute it.
 
Drew said:
This text works perfectly well with a conceptualization man where the soul is not a separate part of man.

Here is how this works. Let's speculate that the term "soul" refers to the "blueprint" or the "specification" of a human person who is, in fact, indivisible into components. If man kills the body, God can still resurrect that person, because God "knows" who that person was (before they were killed) and can certainly reconstitute him at the time of the general resurrection using this "blueprint". The point - man can only kill the body, he cannot "erase" the information that God holds about that person. Is such a blueprint a separate "part" of a human person? Of course not.
So just what is the "soul" to you? Guibox has argued in the past that it simply refers to "living being". While I agree that that is one of the meanings, it clearly ignores the many nuances of the use of "soul" throughout the entirety of Scripture.

Assuming that you agree that "soul" means "living being", your above argument fails in that the verse in Luke 12:4-5 makes a distinction between body and soul. How is it that man's killing of the body does not kill the soul? To say that man "cannot 'erase' the information that God holds about that person" adds yet another definition of "soul" which is unwarranted by Scripture. You have changed the meaning of "soul" to make your argument work.

Drew said:
God, on the other hand, can indeed utterly do away with a person, by electing to "erase" or "blot out" that person in his / her totality - by doing away with both body and "soul". On this view, the destruction of the soul is God's judgement that the wages of sin is indeed death (non-existence) as His word clearly teaches in Romans 6:23 and elsewhere. On the view that the "soul" is this blueprint for a human being, and God does away with that person by erasing the blueprint along with the body - the Matthew text works perfectly well with this.
Once again, your argument is based on your own definition of "soul".

Drew said:
This is entirely consistent with the various Biblical texts about the soul.
It is not consistent with any that I can see.

Drew said:
On the other hand, I would like to know how an immortal soul can be "in the blood" as per Levticus 17:11. This text, in my opinion, is powerful support for the inseperability of the "soul" and the body. If the soul is in the blood, it (the soul), it is deeply and intimately identified with the physiclaty of a created being.
So then you run into your own argument. If the soul is in the blood, then when man kills the body, the soul would also die. This refutes your own argument for the soul being a blueprint. If body and soul are inseparable, Jesus was wrong and man can indeed kill the soul by killing the body.

Drew said:
At the risk of guessing the thoughts of others, I will suggest that the above explanation will be met with "Yes, but the soul and the body are separate components of the human person, so this "blueprint" explanation cannot be correct".

To think that way is to engage in circular reasoning, unless this soul-body distinction is established by other texts.
But the verse itself, the very verse in question, makes a distinction between the body and soul - "both body and soul." It is also supported by the other passage I gave of Lazarus and the Rich Man.
 
Free said:
Firstly, his answer and your position both presume that the Greek dualist concepts are wrong.
Not at all. This has never been the point. The point has been that when we read "soul" and "spirit" we should understand these terms the ways that the writers of Scripture would have intended them. This is a very important point. Let's say that the writers of Scripture used "soul" and "spirit" as descriptive terms to characterize "aspects" of the life of a human person that is believed to not be divisible into components. This is what I believe CP_Mike, guibox, as well as this historian have been saying.

Here is the key point: If the greek dualist concepts were right, the Hebrews would have used different words to refer to these immaterial entities, since the words "soul" and "spirit" are not used that way by them. Of course you are free (no pun intended) to challenge my view about how these terms are used, but that is an entirely different objection. So there simply is no presumption that the dualist concepts are wrong. We need to interpret words taking account of the intended meaning - that is the issue.

Free said:
Secondly, both also ignore Hellenism which could very well have influenced the writings of Scripture. From a previous argument of yours, this would mean that the dualistic concepts were inspired by the Holy Spirit.
Well sure, the Hellenism could have influenced the Scriptures. If you or anybody can make a case that when a Hebrew used the word "soul" or "spirit" his intent was to refer to immaterial entities, then by all means do so. I cannot see how this project could succeed given the way that "soul" seemingly cannot refer to an immaterial entity if it "is in the blood" as per Leviticus 17:11.

Not to mention all those texts that say that the unrepentent will be "devoured", "consumed", "be no more" etc. It seems awfully strange that the "immortal soul" supporters require that such texts refer only to the "flesh suit" that encases the immaterial soul - how could they not require this to be the case if an immortal soul lives on and is not consumed, devoured, etc?

This state of affairs is like saying:

"Fred will be consumed"
"Fred will be devoured"
"Fred will be no more"

and yet intending to give the message that the essence of Fred, the seat of his conscious awareness, remains perfectly unscathed.

This is really not much of a devouring - it seems more like a "nibble" to me.

Free, would you please be willing to answer my question about the "timeline" of the unredeemed as per an earlier post of mine? Which position, 1 or 2, or some other, is the ways things are according to your understanding.

Guibox - I wanted to respond to this. I am sure that any "immaterial soul" supporters who want to be seen as credible will not ignore my questions about being plucked from the flames and then re-inserted.
 
You have changed the meaning of "soul" to make your argument work
I see a certain irony in this statement. My last post contains what I consider to be a powerful argument - the stuff about "Fred and his soul" - that establishes, based on Scripture, the incoherence of positing an immortal soul. I believe that I shape my concept of what "soul" must be by accepting the constraints that Scripture places on its use. I suggest it is the supporter of the "immortal soul" who forces a concept into Scriptures that just doesn't work. Again I ask (and no one seems to want to answer) - if there is an immortal soul what, exactly, is "devoured", "consumed", etc. A "flesh suit"? OK, but I submit that this does not make a lot of sense.

The 1 Corinthians 15 account of being "made alive" is not much of an achievement if the immortal soul is merely being wrapped in flesh.

In any event, I have to run. But I want to make an important clarification. I do not believe that the words "soul" and "spirit" always have a "single" meaning - to this I freely and fully admit. Back to this later.
 
Drew said:
I assume that the "eternal torment" believers assert that, at physical death, unredeemed men go to some sort of state where they are in a state of conscious torment. In fact, I am pretty sure that a central pillar in this argument has been the Luke 16 account - you claim that this is a factual account, an event that has already taken place. So the rich man was in torment in flames thousands of years ago (and presumably still is).

I believe that all "eternal torment" supporters in this thread also believe that unredeemed will be subject to future judgement and then subjected to eternal torment in flames.

How is this future judgement anything more than a mere formality for the rich man who is already, by your own words, in a conscious state of torment in flames?

Are you not forced into one of the following positions?

1. The rich man's disembodied soul is in the lake of fire right now in torment in flames. In the future, he will be plucked out, given some sort of body (or maybe not given a body, I am not sure where you guys stand on this), then judged, and then tossed back into the same place of flames.

2. The rich man's disembodied soul is in Hades right now, but still, by your belief that Luke 16 is factual account, in torment in flames. In the future, he will be plucked out, given some sort of body (or maybe not given a body, I am not sure where you guys stand on this), and judged, and then tossed into a new place - the lake of fire - where he will still be in torment in flames.

Neither of these positions make any sense (at least to me - what do the rest of you think - do these situations make sense to you?). So presumably you believe something else.

Please provide your position on what happens to the various components of an unredeemed person from the moment of their death to their eternal "end state".

In the spirit of equality, I will given my understanding of the "timeline" in a later post.
I subscribe to position 2 with the exception that he may or may not be in torment in flames. This was the whole point behind my giving Luke 12:46-48 - some will receive more punishment than others. The punishment of flame itself may not last for eternity or even 2000 years, what will last is the eternal separation from God - internal torment of what could have and should have been but will never be.

I have no problem believing that both the righteous and unrighteous dead go to Hades when they die. The righteous go a part of Hades that is reserved for them, separated from the unrighteous by an impassable chasm.

That position makes at least as much sense to me as that of God keeping a "blueprint" of each of us somewhere that he will use to re-create us at the resurrection. There really is little difference in how much sense each position has.
 
Drew said:
The point has been that when we read "soul" and "spirit" we should understand these terms the ways that the writers of Scripture would have intended them.
So this then begs the question of just how they intended them - strictly Jewish in meaning, or hellenized in meaning? I am not going to claim I knew their intention, my whole point was that we cannot just so quickly and simply dismiss the popular concept of "soul" without taking into account the hellenization of the Jews. We cannot so easily just say "those are Greek dualist concepts that have nothing to do with the Jewish meaning". You and Guibox want things taken in context, as do I, so we ought not forget the entire social context in which the Scriptures were written.

To do so presumes that the Greek dualist concepts are wrong and as such were never intended by the writers of the NT.

Drew said:
I believe that I shape my concept of what "soul" must be by accepting the constraints that Scripture places on its use. I suggest it is the supporter of the "immortal soul" who forces a concept into Scriptures that just doesn't work.
But yet you continue to ignore the obvious implications of Luke 12:4-5, 46-48, and Luke 16:19-31, all of which explicitly or implicitly differentiate between the body and soul. And this is not to mention Matt. 17:3-4.

If Matt. 17:3-4 is a factual event then this supports Luke 16:19-31 as being very plausible, maybe even moreso.

I am suggesting in all of this that Jesus was further revealing the make-up of man, just as he further revealed the make-up of God, that is, triune. Just because the Jews had a certain understanding of man and death, doesn't mean that they were entirely correct.

Drew said:
It seems awfully strange that the "immortal soul" supporters require that such texts refer only to the "flesh suit" that encases the immaterial soul - how could they not require this to be the case if an immortal soul lives on and is not consumed, devoured, etc?
No more strange than the annihilationist saying that when Jesus said "everyone who lives and believes in me shall never die", he really meant that they would be reconstitued at the resurrection, ceasing to exist from the point of death until that time.
 
Free said:
So this then begs the question of just how they intended them - strictly Jewish in meaning, or hellenized in meaning? I am not going to claim I knew their intention, my whole point was that we cannot just so quickly and simply dismiss the popular concept of "soul" without taking into account the hellenization of the Jews. We cannot so easily just say "those are Greek dualist concepts that have nothing to do with the Jewish meaning". You and Guibox want things taken in context, as do I, so we ought not forget the entire social context in which the Scriptures were written.

To do so presumes that the Greek dualist concepts are wrong and as such were never intended by the writers of the NT.
.

But Free, the NT completely agrees and draws from the OT and not simply from Hellenistic intertestamental literature.

John 5:28,29 which says tha punishments and rewards are handed out at the resurrection and not at death agrees with Daniel 12:1,2

Peter quotes David in the Psalms concerning the prophecy that Christ would not be left to rot in Hades/Sheol but would be resurrected. No mention of disembodied soul but arising in a spiritual body and THEN ascending to the heavens.

Paul's comments and quotes about the resurrection and coming from the grave to rewards and punishment echo Job's words in Job 10:10-14.

Nowhere other than Luke 16 is there ANY mention of immortality or consciousness in the uses of 'Hades' in the NT which jives with both David and Solomon's clear statements that there is no praise, knowledge, wisdom or consciousness in Sheol/Hades.

The NT terms 'psuche' and 'pneuma' in the NT are the exact Greek equivalent of the OT 'nephesh' and 'ruach' which were never used by the Hebrews to denote dualism.

The NT is a continuation of the OT, not a complete reworking of the same terms and concepts.
 
Drew said:
I am pretty sure I am correct in recalling that both you and Solo believe that the Luke 16 is a factual account of a real event that has already taken place. Am I correct?

If this is so - if this is a real account of a real event - then one cannot deny the truth of the following: At some point more than 2000 years ago, there was a real rich man (soul, body, whole person - it does not matter to my point) in conscious torment in flames.

Do you deny this?

If you do not, how do square this with your statement that the wicked are "awaiting the sentencing"? Is not the rich man already in flames? How, then, has he not really already been sentenced?
You evidently haven't read my posts on Sheol. Here are the points:
  • Prior to Jesus resurrection, the righteous died and their body went into the grave, while the soul went to paradise in Sheol/Hades.[/*:m:57528]
  • Prior to Jesus resurrection, the unrighteous died and their body went into the grave, while the soul went to flame and torment in Sheol/Hades.[/*:m:57528]
  • After Jesus' resurrection the righteous souls in paradise went to heaven and paradise is no longer in Sheol/Hades but is in heaven.[/*:m:57528]
  • After Jesus' resurrection the righteous died and their body went into the grave, while the soul went to heaven.[/*:m:57528]
  • After Jesus' resurrection the unrighteous died and their body went into the grave, while the soul went to flame and torment in Sheol/Hades.[/*:m:57528]
  • The righteous are never judged to decide whether they have eternal life or not, they are judged to determine their rewards.[/*:m:57528]
  • The unrighteous are never judged to decide whether they are condemned or not, they are judged to determine the level of their torment.[/*:m:57528]
  • After the judgment, the righteous remain with the Lord.[/*:m:57528]
  • After the judgement, the unrighteous are cast into the lake of fire with Hades and death and satan and satan's angels and the false prophet and the beast.[/*:m:57528]
Sheol is a place of residence of those that have once been alive in the physical realm on earth. The grave is not Sheol; however the grave is in Sheol. The grave is the tomb, the seplechre, or the hole in the ground and is the place where the body is laid after it dies. Sheol is also the place which contains the spiritual residence for the righteous souls, the unrighteous souls, and the fallen angels.
 
guibox said:
The NT is a continuation of the OT, not a complete reworking of the same terms and concepts.
Do you believe in the Trinity?
 
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