Hi Ryan,
We haven't had much of a chance to talk; and the rapid fire nature of verse slinging has been difficult to keep up with! :crazy
I wanted to walk through a post of yours, and sort of comment it for reference.
Correct, that agrees with the fact that Aaronites no longer walk the earth; Jesus is the only possible high priest NOW, and no prophecy allows for another; But for all that agreement -- Hebrews says nothing about abolishing the low priesthood; but rather informs us that we *are* (present tense) a kingdom of priests ; which was originally promised to the Israelites *conditionally*.
Exodus 19:6,
1Peter 2:5, 1Peter2:9, Hebrews 13:15-16,
The transfer is certainly true; but whether the
WHOLE Mosaic law is now attached to Jesus is a point yet to be shown.
Notice: Hebrews 5:6 is not citing something stated in the Law of Moses from Sainai. Rather it's at a much later date, after sin had inundated Israel for years. Psalm 110:4, is from the Davidic kingdom long after Moses.
It's at a point in history where the covenant was being Judged on account of past sins, and not being codified.
That's one possible answer; but there might be a catch once we discuss faith vs. work, vs. work
S, vs. command, vs. command
S (eg: John 6:28-29); but even before that -- if this is about *one* commandment, exactly which
one of the 631 Mosaic laws -- or which of the 10 -- or exactly one of what is being revoked? What scripture verse from Exodus to Numbers specifies it?
The law is not weak and unprofitable, however; the author does not clarify yet at this point what is weak and unprofitable. Later we discover it is the sinful man administration of the priesthood that is causing the weakness, which is the root cause of the problem at hand. In verse 12 when reading verse 18. ... The Greek word for disannulling (athetesis) explains what is happening. Athetesis means “to set aside something, to refuse to recognize its validity, or the complete removal of something“
Hebrews 7:18 begins with the word "for", and is written in response to verse 7:16 --
http://www.biblos.com/hebrews/7-16.htm
But in 7:16, it says "law" quite clearly, in the original Greek and essentially says "law of-commands of-flesh" which is "sarks", as in the meat off a body.
A possible distinction I see is that Melchizadech did not offer animal sacrifices, but bread and wine.
A man who eats the flesh of dead animals lives for a day satisfying a natural hunger, but will still die (the first and second deaths);
However, he who eats the flesh of "life" receives also the Spirit to eternal Life (and does not die the second death).
Note: John 6:63 and John 6:53, amount to the same argument -- flesh alone grants only fleeting life; but fully living flesh (eg: by Spirit) is eternal.
I also checked the word, αθετησις, and it is used almost exclusively in the context of betraying an oath (treachery), breaking a covenant, or vigorous denial of somethings validity; eg: it's a *very* strong word.
Notably: It's found in Hebrews 9:26 as "to
put away sin" ; If Covenant is spoken of in terms of a marriage oath, then athetEsis means divorce, suggesting the woman's a harlot.... and porn marriages are unlawful, therefore "put-away-able" It's a very anti-covenant word.
... but in fact, as verse 12 already clearly stated, the law was not thrown out the window, but handed off, or transferred, to the perfect administrator, Jesus
That's true, but the statement has to be reconciled with the specific ordinances Moses gave concerning which tribes may be priests, and which ones can not. The very fact that Paul says their priesthood is not protected by an Oath -- means we need to look very carefully at how the Levites/Aaronites fit into the covenant at all. There is something going on that's not quite right.
I mentioned this earlier; eg: a basis to believe that at least some of what Moses gave was intended as a permanent gift.
Romans 11:28 As concerning the gospel, they [Israelites] are enemies for your sakes: but as touching the election, they are beloved for the fathers' sakes.
Romans 11:29 For the gifts and calling of God are without repentance.
( gift="grace", "Charis" "χαρισ-ματα".);
And we know the law was Grace Romans 5:20, but I also looked at the Greek, to come up with:
Galat 3:19 τι ουν ο νομος των παραβασεων
χαριν προσετεθη αχρις ου ελθη το σπερμα ω επηγγελται διαταγεις δι αγγελων εν χειρι μεσιτου
Galatians 3:19 Why then a gift of the law of transgressions? The grace was added while awaiting the seed to whom the promise was made through angels in a mediator's hand.
After doing all this (TADA!!!), notice what arises: Galatians 3:19 repeats a chiasmus of Romans 5:20.
And clearly, the "gift" spoken of, is the *Sainitic* law of Moses; a direct inference from Romans 5:14.
At various times in the thread, I have tried to discuss the difference in laws prior to Moses, and from Moses himself.
Some laws are the mediators concessions, which God was forced to "pass over". eg: see Matthew 19:7, and the distinction of the laws which preceded it, eg: the fathers, Noahide, Genesis. ( Genesis 2:24 against porn and divorce )
With respect to bestiality, there is also a law given in Genesis of the same kind: Genesis 2:20 -- where animals were not seen fit to be his helpmate; and I don't mean a pet, or work animal, but someone to share his soul with that he would no longer be alone.
( Side note: Bestiality, sin, and the incest laws are also something to consider for how two people Adam and Eve, begot the whole human race , evolution, all that stuff...)
You, yourself, though stumbled across this passage -- which shows even John talking about the New laws being "old".
1 John 2:7-8 Beloved, I am not writing a new commandment to you, but an old commandment which you have had from the beginning; the old commandment is the word which you have heard. 8 On the other hand, I am writing a new commandment to you, which is true in Him and in you, because the darkness is passing away and the true Light is already shining.
But, it proves too much -- for the word "Beginning" is the Greek word "Genesis";
so that it's important to note that these are Torah laws, but not laws taking their origin from Sainai -- they aren't Moses' law.
In addition to writing the law, as messenger of God, with the angels, at Mt. Sainai, Moses also was caretaker of the history of all the Patriarchs, and the previous laws. So, it's important to separate them in the discussion as I don't lump them together.
Paul is very careful to draw his rules for his churches, as do the Acts of the Apostles -- from laws which predate Sainai.
A final note:
If it's helpful, here's a quick recap about my disagreement with other posters about the word "until";
"until" is an apologetically unstable word; and I mean a "cheap" apologetic. Here's the counterexample I gave.
example:
Romans 5:13 Sin was in the world UNTIL the law :
That statement can mean a change in sin when the law came; It doesn't prove what kind, or even that sin changes --
BUT in this case, we know that law increases sin; "Knowledge implies guilt".
[again] ... Sin was in the world until the law -- does not mean sin is "OUT of the world" after the law.
It's rhetoric/polemic/sophistry to use "until" as a proof-text; for English readers generally make unjustified assumptions when reading "until".
Until does not mean that the thing "ended" or was "removed" afterward. In the case I show from Romans, Sin didn't cease being in the world once the law came; rather sin "increased".
Therefore: Each time the word "until" appears, the reader must judge what change happened, and not let their "feelings" and ignorance of further context unduly influence them.