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Re: When did the Law pass or has it passed away?@John 8:32 , gave you the definition of the "taken away" and the Gk but has not given you the definition in the GK of what was nailed to the cross. Here is the GK from Strong's which you can find (if you don't already know) at http://v3.blueletterbible.org/lang/L...gs=G1378&t=KJV and read it for yourself.SeekHisFace; said:Blotting out the handwriting of ordinances that was against us, which was contrary to us, and took it out of the way, nailing it to his cross
Strong's #1378 - Greek - dogma - doctrine, decree, ordinance of public decrees of the Roman Senate of rulers the rules and requirements of the law of Moses; carrying a suggestion of severity and of threatened judgment of certain decrees of the apostles relative to right living I cannot copy and paste from the Thayer's Lexicon on the same page but there you will find under #2. the definition as being the laws of Moses, and the Gk, at the end of the definition of #2 it specifically refers this definition to Col 2:14. So what I see is the the Law of Moses was nailed to the cross. This is witness to what was said that the Law would be given Until the Seed (Jesus) of Abraham, came.
Unfortunately, biblical dictionaries of Greek are written with people who read their own theology in...
It's great to use lexicons and dictionaries as starting points, but if you want to build on a rock foundation -- verify what they say. Strong's is very sloppy.... but it's a good start for an exhaustive concordance search.
There's not a single example in Greek O.T. of the word "dogma" being applied to Moses or any of his laws. Not one.
Throughout the whole bible, the Greek word "dogma" refers to a judgment made by a King. Moses was accused of attempting to start a dynastic family at one point (along with a racist remark against his dark skinned wife), and he denied that; so it's not surprising that the word was avoided carefully.
The word "dogma" doesn't appear until the book of Nehemiah, and in all OT cases; the word appears with a "king" being the one writing it. ( And a king who had was primarily gentiles/pagan to boot... )
Concordance of easily KJV correlated examples: Esther 3:9, Daniel 2:12-13, 2:15, 6:13
Nehemiah has examples I've omitted... If you need me to find those, I can -- but the verse numbering is different.
I can also show examples from classic Greek outside the bible; but I assume the bible is more comfortable?
Consider the "decree"'s in the NT: First notice that the Apostles are considered equivalent to kings: Matthew 19:28-29.
(and Jesus said , "I am the resurrection.", therefore those in Christ already reign.);
The whole exhaustive list is Luke 2:1, Acts 16:4, Acts 17:7, Ephesians 2:15, Colossians 2:14, Colossians 2:20,
Notice, that the Law of Moses is spoken of very often in the N.T. ... but there are no definite examples of Jesus ever calling a statute of Moses (dogma); nor of Moses or his own people doing so.
In every case the word is used, the decision ( decree ) reached is at the discretion of a ruler; in modern terms, the word is far closer to "executive privelege" or "judgment" than "law".
The old covenant Pharisees (and the New Covenant twelve apostles) were given the right to *bind* and loose decrees.
When a Jewish King or Judge is exercising authority over his *own* people, that decree is referred to as "single" fingered to remind his subjects of where the authority comes from: Consider: God wrote the ten commandments single fingered-ly.
1Kings 12:10; Exodus 31:18; Deuteronomy 9:10
It's the very fact that teachers of the Law ( scribes & pharisees ) refused to *loosen* (lift a finger) the laws when appropriate (mercy) that made Jesus very angry. (eg: esp. at their hypocrisy ). Matthew 23:2-4 ; The Pharisees happily claimed the power of Moses' ruling power and the later idea of "king" ship -- but failed to rule justly and mercifully.
With that in mind, look at Colossians 2:20-22 ; Where it ends in "commandments and doctrines of men" ?
It was the Sanhedren, and Pharisees of the old covenant who no longer had power to "bind" commands over Christians; God took that authority away from them, and gave the Power (fully on Pentecost, I presume) to the Apostles;
The Apostles are, therefore, no longer "men" -- but God's anointed apostles. (anointed with the Holy Spirit).
A summary:
Matthew 19:28-29, Matthew 21:43, Matthew 21:45, and for the full context Matthew 21:37-45.
The twelve apostles have the right to bear witness to God, as a cross examiner/judge, even to a death sentence:
Acts 5:4-5 ( eg: Ananias lied to Peter in fact, but note -- Peter explains it to him, "you lied to the Spirit." )
The second word that was part of the discussion: handwriting -- is translated perfectly literally.
The Greek merely means something written by hand; and in particular, meaning an original or a signed contract; (Printing presses weren't invented). I have exhaustively checked it, but there aren't enough biblical examples to show you here.
Essentially: It means a contract, or a debt.
One last note of importance: There is one other place the solitary finger is used -- it's the priest's finger, when blotting or smearing blood on the altar, to purify, atone, or release someone from sin.
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