Yahwah's name was in the original New Testament scriptures

[7thMoon]

How do you get that from that passage? That's not mentioned anywhere in the context.

Slander is the definition of blasphemy.

I don't understand what you're saying with any of this.

It wasn't good to let the Israelite public to believe God resurrects the dead.

The verse is saying that one will die in their sins if they don't believe he is truly God, the I Am. Paul repeats this in Rom 10:9-13.

Being saved has nothing to with being resurrected.

 

[Dorothy Mae]

You are not understanding. It isn't that he "meant to say YHWH," it's that he referred to himself as the being who is I Am, whose name is YHWH.

Ah contrar! You are not understanding. He never ever used YHWH in direct speech to or about his Father or Himself. That’s a fact. That name was never ever used. He certainly knew it. He never taught it or used it otherwise. Technically speaking, we are talking nomenclature.

Make no mistake, God has many many “first names” as there are many many languages, but we are taught to call Him “Father” or “Jesus,” never what the Hebrews alone used.

 

[Free]

Ah contrar! You are not understanding. He never ever used YHWH in direct speech to or about his Father or Himself. That’s a fact. That name was never ever used. He certainly knew it. He never taught it or used it otherwise. Technically speaking, we are talking nomenclature.

That is going too far with the text.

Mat 4:7 Jesus said to him, “Again it is written, ‘You shall not put the Lord your God to the test.’” (ESV)

Deu 6:16 “You shall not put the LORD your God to the test, as you tested him at Massah. (ESV)

Mat 5:33 “Again you have heard that it was said to those of old, ‘You shall not swear falsely, but shall perform to the Lord what you have sworn.’ (ESV)

Lev 19:12 You shall not swear by my name falsely, and so profane the name of your God: I am the LORD. (ESV)

Just because the NT was written in Greek doesn't mean that Jesus didn't speak in Hebrew. Even if he spoke in Greek, he used the Greek translation, kurios, of YHWH. It would be very strange if Jesus, being a Jew, in speaking to Jews, never used YHWH to speak of God.

So, as I said, my argument isn't that Jesus "meant to say YHWH," it's that he referred to himself as the being who is I Am, whose name is YHWH.

 

[Free]

Slander is the definition of blasphemy.

Not really. You can slander people but you can only blaspheme God.

It wasn't good to let the Israelite public to believe God resurrects the dead.

What do you mean? That is what most believed.

Being saved has nothing to with being resurrected.

It has everything to do with being resurrected but that wasn't my point.

Rom 10:9 because, if you confess with your mouth that Jesus is Lord and believe in your heart that God raised him from the dead, you will be saved.
Rom 10:10 For with the heart one believes and is justified, and with the mouth one confesses and is saved.
Rom 10:11 For the Scripture says, “Everyone who believes in him will not be put to shame.”
Rom 10:12 For there is no distinction between Jew and Greek; for the same Lord is Lord of all, bestowing his riches on all who call on him.
Rom 10:13 For “everyone who calls on the name of the Lord will be saved.” (ESV)

Paul quotes Joel 2:32:

Joe 2:32 And it shall come to pass that everyone who calls on the name of the LORD shall be saved. For in Mount Zion and in Jerusalem there shall be those who escape, as the LORD has said, and among the survivors shall be those whom the LORD calls. (ESV)

"LORD" in Joel 2:32 is, of course, YHWH, which Paul applies to Christ by stating that one must confess "that Jesus is Lord." That is, Paul is saying that verse 13 is what is stated as necessary in verse 9--one must confess Jesus is YHWH for salvation.

And that is precisely what Jesus says in John 8:24, except that he says one must believe he is the I Am--whose name is YHWH--to be saved.

 

[Dorothy Mae]

That is going too far with the text.

Mat 4:7 Jesus said to him, “Again it is written, ‘You shall not put the Lord your God to the test.’” (ESV)

Deu 6:16 “You shall not put the LORD your God to the test, as you tested him at Massah. (ESV)

Mat 5:33 “Again you have heard that it was said to those of old, ‘You shall not swear falsely, but shall perform to the Lord what you have sworn.’ (ESV)

Lev 19:12 You shall not swear by my name falsely, and so profane the name of your God: I am the LORD. (ESV)

Just because the NT was written in Greek doesn't mean that Jesus didn't speak in Hebrew. Even if he spoke in Greek, he used the Greek translation, kurios, of YHWH. It would be very strange if Jesus, being a Jew, in speaking to Jews, never used YHWH to speak of God.

So, as I said, my argument isn't that Jesus "meant to say YHWH," it's that he referred to himself as the being who is I Am, whose name is YHWH.

On the contrary, no Jew spoke YHWH out loud as it was considered too holy to speak. He would have endangered his ministry over using a word they considered holy. No one spoke it and how it was pronounced was lost. What is more, it was in Hebrew not Aramaic. So it would have been very strange if he had used the word lost over the centuries, in the language they did not speak offending people for no good reason. When asked to teach them to pray, he said to call God "Father," not YHWH.

 

[Free]

On the contrary, no Jew spoke YHWH out loud as it was considered too holy to speak. He would have endangered his ministry over using a word they considered holy. No one spoke it and how it was pronounced was lost. What is more, it was in Hebrew not Aramaic. So it would have been very strange if he had used the word lost over the centuries, in the language they did not speak offending people for no good reason. When asked to teach them to pray, he said to call God "Father," not YHWH.

Then that would be a good reason why he claimed to be I Am. He was claiming to be YHWH without using the name.

 

[7thMoon]

Not really. You can slander people but you can only blaspheme God.

A modern Roman Catholic inspired answer.

What do you mean? That is what most believed.

Not Thomas, nor the Sadducees who invented annihilationism.

It has everything to do with being resurrected but that wasn't my point.

It doesn't. Please demonstrate the 2 together.

....Several quotes which don't prove your point....

 

[Free]

A modern Roman Catholic inspired answer.

That doesn't address anything.

Not Thomas, nor the Sadducees who invented annihilationism.

What Thomas? As I said, most believed in a resurrection.

It doesn't. Please demonstrate the 2 together.

1Co 15:12 Now if Christ is proclaimed as raised from the dead, how can some of you say that there is no resurrection of the dead?
1Co 15:13 But if there is no resurrection of the dead, then not even Christ has been raised.
1Co 15:14 And if Christ has not been raised, then our preaching is in vain and your faith is in vain.
1Co 15:15 We are even found to be misrepresenting God, because we testified about God that he raised Christ, whom he did not raise if it is true that the dead are not raised.
1Co 15:16 For if the dead are not raised, not even Christ has been raised.
1Co 15:17 And if Christ has not been raised, your faith is futile and you are still in your sins. (ESV)

As I said, resurrection has everything to do with salvation.

...Several quotes which don't prove your point....

Nice dodge, except that it isn't. It's a common, tiresome tactic with anti-Trinitarians.

 

[Dorothy Mae]

Then that would be a good reason why he claimed to be I Am. He was claiming to be YHWH without using the name.

He was claiming to be Adonai, El Shaddai, Elohim, and a host of other language references (which are different in other languages) to the Ancient of Days.

 

[Dorothy Mae]

Then that would be a good reason why he claimed to be I Am. He was claiming to be YHWH without using the name.

Well at least you admit he did not speak YHWH.

Do you have an aversion to using English in this exchange? You string together 4 consonants that have no meaning in English. Why? If Jesus did not use YHWH, why do you?

 

[7thMoon]

1Co 15:12 Now if Christ is proclaimed as raised from the dead, how can some of you say that there is no resurrection of the dead?
1Co 15:13 But if there is no resurrection of the dead, then not even Christ has been raised.
1Co 15:14 And if Christ has not been raised, then our preaching is in vain and your faith is in vain.
1Co 15:15 We are even found to be misrepresenting God, because we testified about God that he raised Christ, whom he did not raise if it is true that the dead are not raised.
1Co 15:16 For if the dead are not raised, not even Christ has been raised.
1Co 15:17 And if Christ has not been raised, your faith is futile and you are still in your sins. (ESV)

As I said, resurrection has everything to do with salvation.

The words salvation of saved have nothing to do with the passages you quote. You dodge the point. Being saved from leprosy is not the same as the afterlife.

 

[Free]

The words salvation of saved have nothing to do with the passages you quote. You dodge the point.

1Co 15:17 And if Christ has not been raised, your faith is futile and you are still in your sins.
1Co 15:18 Then those also who have fallen asleep in Christ have perished.

Being saved from leprosy is not the same as the afterlife.

Obviously, but what does that have to do with anything?

 

[7thMoon]

1Co 15:17 And if Christ has not been raised, your faith is futile and you are still in your sins.
1Co 15:18 Then those also who have fallen asleep in Christ have perished.

Again, the words saved or σῴζω is used in any form in the verses.

15:17 εἰ δὲ Χριστὸς οὐκ ἐγήγερται ματαία ἡ πίστις ὑμῶν ἔτι ἐστὲ ἐν ταῖς ἁμαρτίαις ὑμῶν
And if the Messiah has not been woken, the worthless your faith if you are in your sins.

Obviously, but what does that have to do with anything?

It demonstrates the original meaning of the word doesn't have special divine meaning. Like many words, it developed a different meaning through common abuse. Blaspheme becomes divine specific. Heresey becomes opinion rather than division. And saved becomes about the afterlife rather than health.

 

[Free]

Again, the words saved or σῴζω is used in any form in the verses.

15:17 εἰ δὲ Χριστὸς οὐκ ἐγήγερται ματαία ἡ πίστις ὑμῶν ἔτι ἐστὲ ἐν ταῖς ἁμαρτίαις ὑμῶν
And if the Messiah has not been woken, the worthless your faith if you are in your sins.

I'm assuming you meant that those words "is not used in any form in the verses." This is the same sort of argument that the word "Trinity" isn't in the Bible, so therefore it is false. Just as the foundations and therefore the teaching of the Trinity is in the Bible, so too, the word saved doesn't appear in this passage but it is very clearly talking about salvation.

It demonstrates the original meaning of the word doesn't have special divine meaning. Like many words, it developed a different meaning through common abuse. Blaspheme becomes divine specific. Heresey becomes opinion rather than division. And saved becomes about the afterlife rather than health.

"Saved" refers to both being made well and justification, sanctification, and glorification (it is never just about the afterlife).

 

[BB1956]

Yahweh like Jehovah are manmade words.




JLB

Taking the name YHWH out of scripture is manmade reasoning. God didn't make any errors putting his name YHWH in scripture. Manmade reasoning is what has caused the name YHWH to be taken out of scripture, and replaced with titles like GOD & LORD and because of this no one knows the true pronunciation of the True God's name YHWH. If the True God YHWH didn't think it necessary to put his name YHWH and for it to be made known to the world, including to his enemies then he would have never put it in scripture. Manmade reasoning declares that the name YHWH shouldn't be in scripture, as though the True God made some mistake when he inspired men to put it in scripture.
YHWH is the True God who created all things and is the source of all life. He's the Father and God of his only begotten Son. YHWH God's only begotten Son is the greater prophet, greater king, greater savior that the True God YHWH has sent to mankind. The only begotten Son is YHWH God's Christ that YHWH God is using to clear his name YHWH of all the reproach and slander that has been heaped upon by Satan and his demons and the humans that have sided with Satan. YHWH God is also using his only begotten Son to save mankind. YHWH God's only begotten Son is the promised seed at Genesis 3:15 that the True God YHWH is using to undo all that Satan and his demons and the humans that follow Satan have done from the beginning at the garden of Eden. YHWH God will use his Christ his only begotten Son to even undo sin and death.

 

[CherubRam]

Then that would be a good reason why he claimed to be I Am. He was claiming to be YHWH without using the name.

The Trinity doctrine:

https://th.bing.com/th/id/OIP.Y5iDlDfYKspkzEzSB016vwHaDt?w=338&h=175&c=7&r=0&o=5&pid=1.7

 

[Free]

Taking the name YHWH out of scripture is manmade reasoning. God didn't make any errors putting his name YHWH in scripture. Manmade reasoning is what has caused the name YHWH to be taken out of scripture, and replaced with titles like GOD & LORD and because of this no one knows the true pronunciation of the True God's name YHWH. If the True God YHWH didn't think it necessary to put his name YHWH and for it to be made known to the world, including to his enemies then he would have never put it in scripture. Manmade reasoning declares that the name YHWH shouldn't be in scripture, as though the True God made some mistake when he inspired men to put it in scripture.
YHWH is the True God who created all things and is the source of all life. He's the Father and God of his only begotten Son. YHWH God's only begotten Son is the greater prophet, greater king, greater savior that the True God YHWH has sent to mankind. The only begotten Son is YHWH God's Christ that YHWH God is using to clear his name YHWH of all the reproach and slander that has been heaped upon by Satan and his demons and the humans that have sided with Satan. YHWH God is also using his only begotten Son to save mankind. YHWH God's only begotten Son is the promised seed at Genesis 3:15 that the True God YHWH is using to undo all that Satan and his demons and the humans that follow Satan have done from the beginning at the garden of Eden. YHWH God will use his Christ his only begotten Son to even undo sin and death.

Jer 23:27 who think to make my people forget my name by their dreams that they tell one another, even as their fathers forgot my name for Baal? (ESV)

Jer 44:26 Therefore hear the word of the LORD, all you of Judah who dwell in the land of Egypt: Behold, I have sworn by my great name, says the LORD, that my name shall no more be invoked by the mouth of any man of Judah in all the land of Egypt, saying, ‘As the Lord GOD lives.’ (ESV)

I think you have likely put the cart before the horse. The pronunciation of the name of God was likely forgotten long ago, hence the need to put a pronounceable name, LORD, in the English text.

 

[Free]

The Trinity doctrine:

https://th.bing.com/th/id/OIP.Y5iDlDfYKspkzEzSB016vwHaDt?w=338&h=175&c=7&r=0&o=5&pid=1.7

Okay. Is there a reason you posted that?

 

[CherubRam]

Okay. Is there a reason you posted that?

The Trinity doctrine says the son is not the father. Three separate persons making one God.

 

[Free]

The Trinity doctrine says the son is not the father. Three separate persons making one God.

Yes, I know. That is rather what I've been saying the whole time.