It isn't false and implies a lot. It is not talking about a salvation but rather a waking of the dead which is superior to salvation.
Would you give a sign to a sinner who won't reform himself? Seriously, you have a term loaded with blanks.
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Desire to be a vessel of honor unto the Lord Jesus Christ?
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Taking the time to pray? Christ is the answer in times of need
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Depending upon the Holy Spirit for all you do?
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How are famous preachers sometimes effected by sin?
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Yahwah's name was in the original New Testament scriptures
- Thread starter CherubRam
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"Waking of the dead" means resurrection. Perhaps you need to read this passage again:
1Co 15:12 Now if Christ is proclaimed as raised from the dead, how can some of you say that there is no resurrection of the dead?
1Co 15:13 But if there is no resurrection of the dead, then not even Christ has been raised.
1Co 15:14 And if Christ has not been raised, then our preaching is in vain and your faith is in vain.
1Co 15:15 We are even found to be misrepresenting God, because we testified about God that he raised Christ, whom he did not raise if it is true that the dead are not raised.
1Co 15:16 For if the dead are not raised, not even Christ has been raised.
1Co 15:17 And if Christ has not been raised, your faith is futile and you are still in your sins.
1Co 15:18 Then those also who have fallen asleep in Christ have perished. (ESV)
It's pretty clear that if there is no resurrection, there is no salvation.
And further down:
1Co 15:42 So is it with the resurrection of the dead. What is sown is perishable; what is raised is imperishable.
1Co 15:43 It is sown in dishonor; it is raised in glory. It is sown in weakness; it is raised in power.
1Co 15:44 It is sown a natural body; it is raised a spiritual body. If there is a natural body, there is also a spiritual body. (ESV)
This is talking about glorification, when our salvation will be complete.
I have no idea what your point(s) is here.
Anyway, this is getting too far off topic.
At best the term (I am) can be a profound statement of being, however, anyone can use it in the profound sense. In other words, it is meaningless.
Yahwah reveals His name to Moses
Exodus 3:13-15.
13 And Moses said to Elohiym, “Suppose I go to the siblings of the Israelites and say to them, 'The Elohiym of your forefathers has sent me to you,' and they ask me, 'What is His name?' What shall I say to them?”
(Elohiym means, “God of The Living.”) It can also be translated as “god-s of the living” or “god-s of life;” for those who have life immortal.
14 And Elohiym said to Moses, “The Living that Lives. This is what you are to say to the Israelites: 'The Living has sent me to you.”
(HaYah) in the ancient Semitic language means: The Living, or The Life.)
15 And Elohiym also said to Moses, “Say to the Israelites, 'Yahwah, the Elohiym of your forefathers; the Elohiym of Abraham, the Elohiym of Isaac and the Elohiym of Jacob has sent me to you.' That’s my name forever, the name by which I’m to be remembered, from generation to generation.”
Yahwah means “Life Began.”
Yahwah reveals His name to Moses
Exodus 3:13-15.
13 And Moses said to Elohiym, “Suppose I go to the siblings of the Israelites and say to them, 'The Elohiym of your forefathers has sent me to you,' and they ask me, 'What is His name?' What shall I say to them?”
(Elohiym means, “God of The Living.”) It can also be translated as “god-s of the living” or “god-s of life;” for those who have life immortal.
14 And Elohiym said to Moses, “The Living that Lives. This is what you are to say to the Israelites: 'The Living has sent me to you.”
(HaYah) in the ancient Semitic language means: The Living, or The Life.)
15 And Elohiym also said to Moses, “Say to the Israelites, 'Yahwah, the Elohiym of your forefathers; the Elohiym of Abraham, the Elohiym of Isaac and the Elohiym of Jacob has sent me to you.' That’s my name forever, the name by which I’m to be remembered, from generation to generation.”
Yahwah means “Life Began.”
Is that so? It’s meaningless that God told Moses that he was I Am? Who else, besides Jesus, used it “in the profound sense”?
No, it is not quite the same, and you are ignoring how it has nothing to do with salvation. And the Greek ἐγείρω "I wake" is never translated properly. The bias is very interesting.
Trading (The Living that Lives) for (I am who I am) is not what was intended. What was intended, was to make it known that Yahwah was not a god made of wood and stone, but and actual living being.
The statement "The Living that Lives" also goes with "First and the Last" statement.
Yahwah was the first God to come into being upon His own accord.
No, I'm not ignoring anything. My argument clearly is that it very much has to do with salvation.
Back to telling translators how they have not translated correctly, are you? Just what do you think the passage is saying then?
Before you answer, be careful to notice:
1Co 15:12 Now if Christ is proclaimed as raised from the dead, how can some of you say that there is no resurrection of the dead?
1Co 15:13 But if there is no resurrection of the dead, then not even Christ has been raised.
1Co 15:14 And if Christ has not been raised, then our preaching is in vain and your faith is in vain.
1Co 15:15 We are even found to be misrepresenting God, because we testified about God that he raised Christ, whom he did not raise if it is true that the dead are not raised.
1Co 15:16 For if the dead are not raised, not even Christ has been raised.
1Co 15:17 And if Christ has not been raised, your faith is futile and you are still in your sins.
1Co 15:18 Then those also who have fallen asleep in Christ have perished.
1Co 15:19 If in Christ we have hope in this life only, we are of all people most to be pitied.
1Co 15:20 But in fact Christ has been raised from the dead, the firstfruits of those who have fallen asleep.
1Co 15:21 For as by a man came death, by a man has come also the resurrection of the dead.
1Co 15:22 For as in Adam all die, so also in Christ shall all be made alive. (ESV)
In verse 12, Paul uses ἐγήγερται ("has been raised," NASB), then ἀνάστασις ("resurrection"). So, Paul is clearly equating the terms. This is even more clear in verse 13:
1Co 15:13 But if there is no resurrection [ἀνάστασις] of the dead, not even Christ has been raised [ἐγήγερται];
And on it goes. Each instance of "raised" is ἐγήγερται and each instance of "resurrection" is ἀνάστασις. Why do you think that is? Do you think it has something to do with what is stated in verses 18 and 20, where believers who die are said to be "asleep"? Notice that "resurrection" refers to something general, whereas "raised" is specific to Christ and his followers, who are said to be "asleep."
You know better than the translators, too. Interesting how two anti-Trinitarians say that translators, who are experts in their field, are wrong.
Do you mean Yahweh? Are you seriously suggesting that he came "into being" and did so "upon his own accord"? Do you realize how irrational that is (that something could cause itself to exist) and that the Bible flat out contradicts it? That's as bad as claiming the Big Bang just happened all on its own. And, "the first God" to do so? Are there others? There must necessarily be, or at least we can't rule that out if one God did it. That is one of the most problematic claims I've heard in these forums, and I've heard plenty.
I also noticed that you didn't answer my question: Who else, besides Jesus, used it “in the profound sense”?
The translators translate according to their own beliefs.
Isaiah 43:10. "You are my witnesses," declares the LORD (Yahwah), "and my servant whom I have chosen, so that you may know and believe me and understand that I am He. Before me no god formed, nor will there be one after me.
The key is the word "formed." Absolutely anything that has no beginning does not exist. God says that He is the FIRST AND THE LAST. Therefore He Began. That is why His name means "Life Began."
God says that no god formed before Him. He also states that none will form after Him, meaning that the element to the forming is no longer available. The word "form" would not have been used if it were not a condition.
There is no Hebrew word "weh," there is however the word "wah."
Read it again. He is not equating the σωζω; they are not synonymous. One can do the ἀνίστημι without any rising out of the dead also.
Irrelevant to my point. In the bible, being saved is the same as being rescued. It is the avoidance of the afterlife, not embrace of it.
That is what you are doing. Yes, they often have to make decisions based on context and which meaning of a word to use, but that doesn't mean that they necessarily get things wrong.
Provide just one legitimate, scholarly source to support your assertion that God's name means "Life Began" and why that particular meaning should be used instead of "I Am," which every Bible version has, including the Complete Jewish Bible. Isaiah 43:10 is in no way whatsoever saying that God was formed. God is simply saying that no God existed before or after him. He alone has always existed.
Psa 90:2 Before the mountains were brought forth, or ever you had formed the earth and the world, from everlasting to everlasting you are God. (ESV)
As I stated, it is completely irrational to believe that God formed himself, in the very same way it is irrational to believe that the universe formed itself (the Big Bang). God would have to already exist in order to form himself; something, even God, cannot come from nothing. Do you see the problem with your claim? Everything that begins to exist must have a cause. If God came into existence then there must have been a cause, like a more powerful God. If you want to believe that God created himself and that there was a time when God did not exist, then you don't believe in the God of the Bible.
Here is what Yahweh says of himself:
Isa 44:6 Thus says the LORD, the King of Israel and his Redeemer, the LORD of hosts: "I am the first and I am the last; besides me there is no god.
Isa 48:12 "Listen to me, O Jacob, and Israel, whom I called! I am he; I am the first, and I am the last.
Rev 1:8 “I am the Alpha and the Omega,” says the Lord God, “who is and who was and who is to come, the Almighty.”
Rev 21:5 And he who was seated on the throne said, “Behold, I am making all things new.” Also he said, “Write this down, for these words are trustworthy and true.”
Rev 21:6 And he said to me, “It is done! I am the Alpha and the Omega, the beginning and the end. To the thirsty I will give from the spring of the water of life without payment.
Rev 21:7 The one who conquers will have this heritage, and I will be his God and he will be my son.
But then look at what Jesus calls himself:
Rev 1:17 When I saw him, I fell at his feet as though dead. But he laid his right hand on me, saying, “Fear not, I am the first and the last,
Rev 2:8 “And to the angel of the church in Smyrna write: ‘The words of the first and the last, who died and came to life.
Rev 22:13 I am the Alpha and the Omega, the first and the last, the beginning and the end.”
(All ESV.)
Why do you think it is that Jesus uses these titles of himself that Yahweh uses of himself, as well as "I Am"?
He is saying that to be resurrected is to be raised, that is, physically from the dead.
Being saved is spoken of as first justification, then sanctification, and finally glorification. It has everything to do with the here and now as well as the afterlife. However, as 1 Cor 15 states, if there is no physical resurrection, then Jesus hasn't been raised, and we are dead in our sins; there is no salvation of any sort.
Saved usually means there was sign or supernatural miracle that happened to someone. And a backslider doesn't get saved again. Repentance was important for those kinds of rescues.
You must be a Catholic.
KJV
Revelation 1:11
Saying, I am Alpha and Omega, the first and the last: and, What thou seest, write in a book, and send it unto the seven churches which are in Asia;...
It was discovered that the above bold part was a forgery, and so some bibles stopped using it. What does that tell you?
NIV
which said: “Write on a scroll what you see and send it to the seven churches: to Ephesus, Smyrna, Pergamum, Thyatira, Sardis, Philadelphia and Laodicea.”
These scriptures in no way are saying to the people of all Israel that they were to take the name of YHWH out of scripture and not say his name ever again. The True God YHWH talking through Jeremiah said to the Jews that went to Egypt trying to escape the Babylonian army that they, meaning those jews who went to Egypt wouldn't say his name YHWH again. The reason why is that the Babylonian army destroyed and captured Egypt and all the Jews who were there with the exception of Jeremiah either died or was captured and never went back to Israel . So those jews in Egypt never said YHWH name again, they never made it back to Israel.
The majority of the Jews were carried off to Babylon so there iswere always some faithful Jews to the True God YHWH, they may have been few but they never forgot the True God's name YHWH.
Jeremiah 23:27 is not telling the people to take God name YHWH out of scripture. This scripture is saying that the Jews because of worshipping false gods and calling on their names caused the Jews to stop calling on the True God name YHWH.
As I said there were always those jews few they may have been who were faithful. They remembered the name YHWH.
KJV
Revelation 1:11
Saying, I am Alpha and Omega, the first and the last: and, What thou seest, write in a book, and send it unto the seven churches which are in Asia;...
It was discovered that the above bold part was a forgery, and so some bibles stopped using it. What does that tell you?
NIV
which said: “Write on a scroll what you see and send it to the seven churches: to Ephesus, Smyrna, Pergamum, Thyatira, Sardis, Philadelphia and Laodicea.”
Now who would want people to think Christ was the Father?
Revelation 1:11
Saying, I am Alpha and Omega, the first and the last: and, What thou seest, write in a book, and send it unto the seven churches which are in Asia;...
It was discovered that the above bold part was a forgery, and so some bibles stopped using it. What does that tell you?
NIV
which said: “Write on a scroll what you see and send it to the seven churches: to Ephesus, Smyrna, Pergamum, Thyatira, Sardis, Philadelphia and Laodicea.”
Now who would want people to think Christ was the Father?
I know. That's not the point I was making.
Did they remember how to pronounce it? Or did this lead to their eventual forgetting of how to pronounce it? That is what I am getting at. We know that they became fearful of saying it lest they take God's name in vain. The issue is when that happened.
Your claim was: "Manmade reasoning is what has caused the name YHWH to be taken out of scripture, and replaced with titles like GOD & LORD and because of this no one knows the true pronunciation of the True God's name YHWH."
But I am saying that it likely happened before any supposed removal of God's name; the pronunciation was lost so the name was changed in the Septuagint to kurios, which of course, is "LORD" or "Lord" in English. What we can be certain of is that God's name was never Jehovah (a 13th or 14th century transliteration).
Again, that is not my point.
Yes, that is my point. And that may have eventually caused them to forget how to pronounce it.
They forgot how to pronounce it at some point.
Not at all, but that has absolutely nothing to do with what I have presented.
It tells me that that is irrelevant and you're avoiding addressing the other places where Jesus uses it and its equivalents of himself.
Modalists. Certainly not Trinitarians.