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I've been clarifying it all along, but you'll never see the truth unless you admit that our Lord Jesus was being sinned against.

No. His cross shows mankind sinning against an innocent man and our Saviors' forebearance in not bringing them into judgement by the law. Example,

False witnesses did rise up; they laid to my charge things that I knew not. Psa.35:11

Right here,

Thou shalt not bear false witness against thy neighbour. Exo.20:16

if the witness should prove to be false and to have given false testimony against the accused, you must do to him what he had intended to do to the accused. In this way you will purge evil from among you. Deu.19:18-19

By ignoring the only reason those sinners weren't put to death is that our Creator being horribly sinned against withheld his wrath against them.
What you are describing is described already in the bible as God's longsuffering, which the churches were instructed about by Paul, and Peter. it is not a new idea, it is the norm. I do not see how you are trying to link this to the discussion.
 
Now go to the place where "it is written." That's where Pauls' meaning becomes clear.
Jesus redeemed His People with Salvation Lk 1:67-69

67 And his father Zacharias was filled with the Holy Ghost, and prophesied, saying,

68 Blessed be the Lord God of Israel; for he hath visited and redeemed his people,

69 And hath raised up an horn of salvation for us in the house of his servant David;
 
What you are describing is described already in the bible as God's longsuffering, which the churches were instructed about by Paul, and Peter. it is not a new idea, it is the norm.
I do not see how you are trying to link this to the discussion.
Jesus displayed our Fathers' longsuffering.
Gods'' longsuffering isn't for the purpose of being punished in place of sinners. It's for the purpose of giving sinners time to repent.
 
Jesus displayed our Fathers' longsuffering.
Gods'' longsuffering isn't for the purpose of being punished in place of sinners. It's for the purpose of giving sinners time to repent.
You deny the substitutionary death of Christ. Thats why Jesus came into the world, to die for chosen sinners.
 
Who said it wasn't? Not sure what you are trying to say.
You said,
Iconoclast said:
The cross turns away wrath from believers as Jesus takes their place.
That's not true. Our Lord wasn't displaying the "longsuffering of taking the sinners place." Jesus wasn't being punished by our Father in place of sinners.
God came to us as his Son. The Son of God endured, bore, put up with sinners committing vile acts against him. He turned his own wrath away from people who deserved to die. For Gods' sake, how much plainer do you want it?
 
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You said,

That's not true. Our Lord wasn't displaying the "longsuffering of taking the sinners place." Jesus wasn't being punished by our Father in place of sinners.
God came to us as his Son. The Son of God endured, bore, put up with sinners committing vile acts against him. He turned his own wrath away from people who deserved to die. For Gids' sake, how much plainer do you want it?
Oh, I understand now. You do not understand these words.
Jesus as our surety and mediator made "propitiation" on behalf of the Covenant Children the Father gave to Him. He turns away the wrath that they are under. He takes the wrath of the elect on Himself. It is known as penal substitutionary atonement.
God is longsuffering bearing with the sins of the ungodly, until the last of the elect has been drawn effectually to salvation.
All sin must be punished. In the sinner, or the Divine Substitute.
The bible could not be clearer on this. God has ordained a definite, and particular atonement on behalf the the elect children the Father gave to the Son.
 
A friend of mine in another place posted this;
Isaiah 53:5. ‘The chastisement for our peace was upon Him.’

John 10:18. “No one takes my life from Me, but I lay it down of Myself. I have power to lay it down, and I have power to take it up again. This command I have received from My Father.”

I have been accused on this forum of heresy by suggesting that Christ was the recipient of the Father’s wrath and more especially by suggesting that the Son was ‘forsaken’ by the Father. Most of what follows was posted here two or three years ago, but it seems necessary to present it again.

In the early Church, the reality that there is one God in three Persons (not ‘members’) was safeguarded by speaking of a single divine ‘substance’ shared by Father, Son and Spirit. This substance is simply what God is, the thing that makes Father, Son and Spirit divine without implying three deities.

The Lord Jesus tells us that He and His father mutually indwell each other (John 14:11; c.f. also John 10:38; 14:10, 20). The technical term for this is perichoresis. This implies both union and distinction between Father and Son. One of the many problems with polytheism is the idea that different deities may make different demands of people and compete with one another as we see in the poems of Homer and Hesiod. Within the Trinity this is avoided, not because the Persons fortuitously happen to agree on most things, but because they must agree, for they are one God. The idea therefore that on the cross the Father inflicts a punishment upon the Son that He is unwilling to bear, or that the Son draws from the Father a forgiveness that He is unwilling to bestow is a non-starter.

But there is also a distinction between the Persons. Without it, it would be ridiculous to talk of a distinct Father, Son and Spirit at all, and it would be impossible for them to relate to each other as separate Persons as the Scripture teaches they do. But if Son, Father and Spirit are all fully Divine and equal in their possession of all the Divine attributes (e.g. holiness, wisdom, truth etc.), what distinguishes them? The answer is in their asymmetric relationship with each other. The Father is in a relationship of Fatherhood to the Son and the Son is in a relationship of Sonship to the Father. The Son is everything the Father is, save that He is not the Father, the Spirit is not the Son and so forth.

It must surely be agreed that God’s actions reflect His nature. He does what is holy because He is holy; what is good because He is good. Therefore God’s nature will be reflected in the actions of each Person of the Trinity and both unity and distinction between the Persons will be reflected in what God does.

So the actions of the Persons reflect their unity. In John 14:10-11, the Lord Jesus teaches that His works are at the same time His Father’s works and this is grounded in the Perichoretic Union. In John 5:19, He testifies that ‘Whatever He [the Father] does, the Son also does in like manner.’ The fundamental unity in their actions mirrors the fundamental union of their Persons.

On the other hand, the actions of the Persons reflect their distinctions. The Bible teaches that the Father sent the Son, and that the Son willingly obeyed the Father (John 10:15-18; Philippians 2:5-9). Father and Son send the Spirit, but the Spirit does not send the Father. The work of the Trinity in salvation is outlined in Ephesians 1:3-14. The Three work in perfect harmony to accomplish their single goal, but their roles are quite different.

In order to represent this unity and distinction between the Persons, Augustine taught that the Father’s actions are not without the Son and the Son’s actions not without the Father. That seems to work rather well. Augustine affirmed that while the Persons of the Trinity do not perform the same action in the same way, nevertheless they do not act independently of one another– their respective contributions to any given activity are inseparable.

So it is not meaningless to say that God the Son propitiated God the Father. The same Person is not the subject and object of the verb. Nor does the fact that the Father exacts a punishment borne by the Son mean that they are divided or act independently. Their relationship is asymmetric, but they are mutually and inseparably engaged upon two aspects of the same action with one purpose– the salvation of guilty sinners while satisfying the justice of the Triune God.

I now want to look at the Lord Jesus being ‘forsaken’ on the cross. First of all I want to repeat what I said above. We must never imagine that God the Father imposed upon the Son any burden that He was unwilling to bear. On the contrary, He declares, “I delight to do Your will, O My God….” (Psalm 40:8; Hebrews 10:7; c.f. John 4:34; 6:38). Nor should we imagine that on the cross, the Son extracted from the Father a mercy that He was unwilling to give (John 3:16; Romans 5:8). On the contrary, on the cross, ‘Mercy and truth have met together; righteousness and peace have kissed’ (Psalm 85:10).

We should now consider the various references to the Lord Jesus drinking a cup. In Mark 10:38, He asks James and John, “Are you able to drink the cup that I drink and be baptized with the baptism that I am baptized with?” Then in Gethsamene, ‘deeply distressed and troubled’ Mark 14:33), He cries out to the Father, “O My Father, if it is possible, let this cup pass from Me; nevertheless, not as I will but as You will” (Matthew 26:39, 42 etc.), and then in John 18:11, “Shall I not drink the cup which My Father has given Me?” It is clear that this cup is something horrific which the Father requires Him to drink. He knows all about it, has willingly (see above) agreed to drink it, but as the cup approaches, He is filled with dread and horror at the anticipation of it. On an night when it was cold enough for a fire to be kindled in the courtyard of the high priest’s house (Luke 22:55), the Lord Jesus sweats copiously (Luke 22:44)– the psychosomatic response of a human to impending trauma.

So what is this cup which the Lord Jesus must drink? The O.T. tells us; it is a cup of judgement and wrath against the wicked. ‘For in the hand of the LORD there is a cup, and the wine is red; it is fully mixed, and He pours it out; surely its dregs shall all the wicked of the earth drain down and drink’ (Psalm 75:8). ‘For thus says the LORD GOD of Israel to me, “Take this wine cup from My hand and cause all the nations, to whom I send you to drink it. And they will drink and stagger and go mad because of the sword I will send among them……..”‘ (Jeremiah 25:15-32).

As one reads on, it becomes clear that this judgement is for the whole world to drink. See also Isaiah 51:17; Ezekiel 23:32-34; Habakkuk 2:16). So why should the Lord Jesus drink this cup? Mark 10:45 tells us, He came, ‘To give His life as a ransom for many;’ to drink the cup destined for sinners in their place. “Behold, we are going up to Jerusalem, and the Son of Man will be betrayed {lit. ‘handed over.’ Gk. paradidomai) to the chief priests and to the scribes; and the will condemn Him to death and deliver [Gk. paradidomai] Him to the Gentiles [lit. ‘nations.’ Gk. ethnoi], and they will mock Him and scourge Him, and spit on Him, and kill Him. And the third day He will rise again.’

Now compare with Psalm 106:40-41. ‘Therefore the wrath of the LORD was kindled against His people, so that He abhorred His own inheritance. And He gave them [LXX paradidomai] into the hand of the Gentiles [or ‘nations’ LXX ethnoi ] and those who hated them ruled over them.’ So for our Lord Jesus to be handed over to the nations is tantamount to being delivered over to God’s wrath. Christ gave His life as a ransom for many, being handed over to God’s wrath in the place of many. The ransom is, of course, not money, but a life being given up in death, and pain being suffered in the place of others who would otherwise suffer the pains of hell.

[For much of the article so far I have drawn on Pierced for our Transgressions by Jeffrey, Ovey and Sach (IVP, 2007. ISBN 978-1-84474-178-6)]
 
The Lord Jesus never ceased to be the beloved Son of the Father. God's wrath is against sin and those who commit it.. The Lord Jesus was made the sin-bearer (Isaiah 53:6; 1 Peter 2:24) and God's wrath against sin was spent upon Him (Isaiah 53:5).
Yep! 'The doctrine of penal substitution states that God Gave Himself in the person of His Son to suffer instead of us the death, punishment and curse due to fallen humanity as the penalty for sin' [Pierced for our Transgressions by Jeffrey, Ovey and Sach]

1. There is a huge number of texts that show that Christ was our substitute. I will post just one:
'He Himself bore our sins in His own body on the tree.' He bore our sins so that we don't have to. He bore them; we don't. If He didn't bear them, we would have to do so. He is our substitute.

2. God's wrath is His righteous, judicial anger against sin (Psalms 7:11; Romans 1:18ff). 'He Himself bore our sins in His own body on the tree.' There is no point in Christ bearing our sins unless He also bears the wrath entailed with them, otherwise God is still angry with us. But also Romans 3:25-26 tells us that God set forth Christ as a 'propitiation,' that is, a 'wrath removing sacrifice' (William Hendricksen). The Greek word indicates the blood-sprinkled lid of the ark of the covenant; the "mercy seat" (KJV, NKJV) or "atonement cover" (NIV). On the Day of Atonement, the High Priest must first make atonement for his own sins before he could do so for the people, otherwise God's wrath would remain on him and any sacrifice he offered would be rejected. The reason that Christ is made a propitiation is so that God may be 'just, and the justifier of the one who believes in Jesus.' God's wrath is righteous and judicial. He 'cannot deny Himself.' He cannot just pour Himself a large gin and tonic, take a deep breath and 'get over' His anger against sin. Justice must be done; sin must be punished, and it is, in the Lord Jesus Christ.

3. Romans 5:6. 'For when we were still without strength, in due time Christ died for the ungodly.' What does this mean? It means that Christ died, so that ungodly sinners like you and I who believe on Him, will never die (John 11:25-26). He died instead of us.

Steve Owen...a pastor in England.
I have seen this sort of argument before, from the Jehovah's Witnesses. Don't reason from Scripture, don't compare Scripture with Scripture, don't read what anyone else says about Scripture; just listen to us.

Never mind that if Christ died so that ungodly sinners who believe on Him will never die, it is an inescapable fact that He MUST have died instead of us. Never mind that God's anger against sinners is based upon His justice and cannot be mollified unless that justice is satisfied. Never mind that if God can just forgive sin there is no reason for Christ to die. Just listen to JonC and the liberal theologians he has learned it all from.

I am quite happy with what I have written. It is all drawn from the Scriptures, and reasoned from nothing else but the Scriptures. If one cannot reason from the Scriptures (Acts of the Apostles 17:2 etc.), then preaching and Bible exposition goes out the window and there is no point in writing books - all we do is read Scripture to each other without explaining it.

The evidence for the Trinity is irrefutable; the evidence for Penal Substitution is even stronger, but if one cannot reason from the Scriptures, then neither doctrine can be taught.
 
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https://www.monergism.com/thethresh...ous Atonement Through Chr - Louis Berkhof.pdf

Atonement legal; Denial of the legal element. THE penal substitutionary doctrine of the atonement proceeds on the assumption that sin is in its very nature a transgression of the law of God and thus renders man guilty. For that very reason the remedy proposed for it must be first of all a legal remedy. This point calls for particular attention because of its widespread denial. The forensic nature of the atonement finds no favor with the advocates of the Moral Influence, or of the Mystical Theory, because it does not fit in with their fundamental thought. According to Sabatier "the capital defect of the old theory lay in its legal character. The Christian thought of our time has, on the contrary, been constantly endeavoring to lift the doctrine of expiation from the forensic to the ethical point of view." The Atonement in Modern Thought, p. 213. Lyman Abbott makes the broad statement that "no theory of the atonement can be correct which represents it as a method of appeasing God's wrath, or satisfying His justice, or meeting the requirements of His law, or devised as a substitute for punishment due to infraction of that law." Ibid, p. 97 f. Stevens expresses the opinion that even "the stoutest recent defender of substitution and propitiation will not allow that he holds any legal or forensic theory." The Christian Doctrine of Salvation, p. 251. Moreover, says he, "Desert the strict penal equivalence theory of atonement (as he thinks every sensible man will naturally do), and you logically end in the moral theory." Op. cit., p. 432.
 
I answered a poster who denied this truth in this way.
The only reason God is said to be the just and the justifier is because He designed a way to justly punish all sin....that is known in scripture as the CROSS.
You weave the verse into your post without the meaning of the words being there.Another empty husk..
Why an empty husk? You offer no biblical answer.
You say basically the wicked absorb all the wrath.You were a child of wrath even as others...but the wrath DUE to your law breaking just dissolves?
You offer partial verses saying look I have mentioned the term just and justifier, as if you addressed it but you are actually avoiding it.
You were being answered last night before the towel was thrown in to rescue you.
No one questions why those at the White Throne judgment are sent into second death.
That let's you mention the word wrath as if that answers for who turns away the wrath from us in a way that is just.
I understand just fine by the way.
I understand your response seeks to avoid the meaning of the cross.
Bottom line is your idea of forgiveness and then a quick new creation, let's just forget it happened, scenario while millions experience wrath for each and every sin they committed is not justice when others are just released and wrath for their sin is just dissolved, disappeared, with no relation to the cross is not just.
 
You still don't understand. Christ was not condemned by God. On the contrary, He was vindicated by the Father at His resurrection (Romans 1:4). On the cross, He willingly took our sins upon Himself and bore the shame and the punishment of them (Hebrews 12:2) in our place. And the Father, who is of purer eyes than to behold evil turned His face away from Him during that time until propitiation was made and our sins paid for.
If God had just taken some random bloke against his will and punished him for someone else's sins, that would be an abomination, but in fact it is God Himself, in the Person of the Lord Jesus who has Himself redeemed us from our sins.

And this is not an abomination! It is wonderful and marvellous beyond all praise! '.....He Himself took upon Him our sins, Himself gave His own Son as a ransom for us.....For what could cover our sins but His righteousness In whom was it possible for us, lawless and impious as we were, to be justified, save only in the Son of God? Oh, sweet exchange and unsearchable act of creation....that the lawlessness of many should be hidden in the one righteous, and that the righteousness of one should justify many who were lawless!'
Christ was not the substitute for sin, He was our substitute. 'The LORD has laid on Him the iniquity of us all.' Once that iniquity was laid to our account; then it was laid to His.
'In his stead' means the same as 'instead of him;' it's just an old-fashioned way of saying it. There is a separate use of 'stead' when someone says, "This will stand you in good stead.' This means it will be advantageous or of good use to you. To be quite clear, I mean that Christ suffered instead of us, which is exactly the same as saying that Christ died in our stead. Thus the Oxford English Dictionary: "In person's or thing's stead: instead of him or it, as substitute."

I want to know what you think being righteous in Christ means and what you think it has to do with Christ.and the cross. I am only asking because it appears that you don't know.
When you remove the idea rather Christ suffered God's wrath against sin instead of us suffering God's wrath then what you have ceases to be Christianity. I said that God did not punish Jesus. God punished sin in Jesus who was made sin for us. The difference is vast and appears to be what you don't understand about Penal Substitution.
'And so then, Jesus took flesh that He might destroy the curse of sinful flesh, and He became for us a curse that a blessing might overwhelm a curse, uprightness might overwhelm sin, forgiveness might overwhelm the sentence, and life might overwhelm death. He also took up death that the sentence might be fulfilled and satisfaction might be given for the judgement, the curse placed on sinful flesh even to death. Therefore nothing was done contrary to God's sentence when the terms of the sentence were fulfilled, for the curse was unto death but grace is after death.' [Ambrose of Milan (339-397), Flight from the World]

Ambrose's whole argument hinges on Penal Substitution, for the curse that rested on sinful mankind was transferred to Christ, and He died to satisfy God's just sentence of death upon us.

Plenty more where that came from.
Steve Owen
 
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CHS;https://www.blueletterbible.org/Comm/spurgeon_charles/sermons/0694.cfm
The second thought is that sin was made to meet upon the suffering person of the innocent substitute. I have said "the suffering person" because the connection of the text requires it. "He was wounded for our transgressions, he was bruised for our iniquities; the chastisement of our peace was upon him, and with his stripes we are healed." It is in connection with this, and as an explanation of all his grief, that it is added, "The Lord hath laid on him the iniquity of us all." The Lord Jesus Christ would have been incapable of receiving the sin of all his people as their substitute had he been himself a sinner: but he was, as to his divine nature, worthy to be hymned as "Holy, Holy, Holy, Lord God of Sabaoth;" and, as to his human nature, he was by miraculous conception free from all original sin, and in the holiness of his life he was such that he was the spotless Lamb of God, without spot, or wrinkle, or any such thing, and therefore he was on all accounts capable of standing in the room, place, and stead of sinful men. The doctrine of the text is, that Jesus Christ, who was man of the substance of his mother, and who was, nevertheless, very God of very God, most true and glorious Creator, Preserver, did stand in such a position as to take upon himself the iniquity of all his people, remaining still himself innocent; having no personal sin, being incapable of any, but yet taking the sin of others upon himself-it has been the custom of theologians to say-by imputation; but I question whether the use of that word, although correct enough as it is understood by us, may not have lent some color to the misrepresentations of those who oppose the doctrine of substitution. I will not say that the sins of God's people were imputed to Christ, though I believe they were; but it seems to me that in a way more mysterious than that which imputation would express, the sins of God's people were actually laid upon Jesus Christ; that in the view of God, not only was Christ treated as if he had been guilty, but the very sin itself was, I know not how, but according to the text it was somehow laid upon the head of Christ Jesus: "For he hath made him to be sin for us who knew no sin, that we might be made the righteousness of God in him." Is it not written, "He shall bear," not merely the punishment of their sin, nor the imputation of their sin, but "He shall bear their iniquities"? Our sin is laid on Jesus in even a deeper and truer sense than is expressed by the term imputation. I do not think I can express it, nor convey the idea that I have in my own mind, but while Jesus never was and never could be a sinner,-God forbid that the blasphemous thought should ever cross our lips or dwell upon our heart!-yet the sin of his people was literally and truly laid upon him.
 
Oh, I understand now. You do not understand these words.
I know God is a just Judge. A Judge who is just punishes the guilty, not the innocent in place of the guilty,

The fathers shall not be put to death for the children, nor shall the children be put to death for the fathers; every man shall be put to death for his own sin. Deu.24:16
Jesus as our surety and mediator made "propitiation" on behalf of the Covenant Children the Father gave to Him. He turns away the wrath that they are under.
He turns wrath away when sinners who have wronged him repent,

except ye repent, ye shall all likewise perish. Lk.13:3
He takes the wrath of the elect on Himself. It is known as penal substitutionary atonement.
I know what it's called. It isn't in the Bible.
You believe God punished his Son in place of sinners. I believe sinners punished the Son in place of our Father,

the reproaches of them that reproached thee are fallen upon me. Psa.69:9

now have they both seen and hated both me and my Father. Jn.15:24
God is longsuffering bearing with the sins of the ungodly, until the last of the elect has been drawn effectually to salvation.
Actually, scripture warns people to repent now, before they die in sin.
All sin must be punished. In the sinner, or the Divine Substitute.
God forgives anyone who truly wants to be forgiven,

For thou desirest not sacrifice; else would I give it: thou delightest not in burnt offering.
The sacrifices of God are a broken spirit: a broken and a contrite heart, O God, thou wilt not despise. Psa.51:16-17
The bible could not be clearer on this. God has ordained a definite, and particular atonement on behalf the the elect children the Father gave to the Son.
Cite one passage where sacrifice is substitutionary. Not for repentance, but for substitution.
 
I know God is a just Judge. A Judge who is just punishes the guilty, not the innocent in place of the guilty,

The fathers shall not be put to death for the children, nor shall the children be put to death for the fathers; every man shall be put to death for his own sin. Deu.24:16

He turns wrath away when sinners who have wronged him repent,

except ye repent, ye shall all likewise perish. Lk.13:3

I know what it's called. It isn't in the Bible.
You believe God punished his Son in place of sinners. I believe sinners punished the Son in place of our Father,

the reproaches of them that reproached thee are fallen upon me. Psa.69:9

now have they both seen and hated both me and my Father. Jn.15:24

Actually, scripture warns people to repent now, before they die in sin.

God forgives anyone who truly wants to be forgiven,

For thou desirest not sacrifice; else would I give it: thou delightest not in burnt offering.
The sacrifices of God are a broken spirit: a broken and a contrite heart, O God, thou wilt not despise. Psa.51:16-17

Cite one passage where sacrifice is substitutionary. Not for repentance, but for substitution.
I just posted 669-675 while you were posting. They answer you.
In the meantime....If the ungodly go into second death because their sins are being punished under the wrath of God for their sins, Who takes the wrath and punishment for the sins of the elect? Are you suggesting they are not punished?
How would God be the JUST AND THE JUSTIFIER. He punishes all sin.
 
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A friend of mine in another place posted this;
Isaiah 53:5. ‘The chastisement for our peace was upon Him.’
This isn't Gods' wrath. This is chastisement every son receives,
Now no chastening for the present seemeth to be joyous, but grievous: nevertheless afterward it yieldeth the peaceable fruit of righteousness unto them which are exercised thereby. Heb.12:11
Jesus didn't exempt himself from this,

Though he were a Son, yet learned he obedience by the things which he suffered; Heb.5:8

It's important to know our Lord himself didn't need correction. He submitted to it only as an example to us.

This is just one example of how scripture has been maligned.
 
This isn't Gods' wrath.
Okay Jm, let's take a look.
rom1:18 For the wrath of God is revealed from heaven against all ungodliness and unrighteousness of men, who hold the truth in unrighteousness;
All men are under wrath for their sins.... All sin must be punished for God to be just.

This is chastisement every son receives,
Now no chastening for the present seemeth to be joyous, but grievous: nevertheless afterward it yieldeth the peaceable fruit of righteousness unto them which are exercised thereby. Heb.12:11
The chastening spoken of in Hebrews 12, is the chastening of Christians for their personal sins as Christians. Jesus never committed sin of His own, so he never was chastised in this was.
Jesus was baptized by Johns baptism of repentance acting as a mediator for His Covenant people.


Jesus didn't exempt himself from this,
He had no need to do this.
Though he were a Son, yet learned he obedience by the things which he suffered; Heb.5:8
This is not speaking of any chastisement at all, but being an obedient Servant as in phil.2
It's important to know our Lord himself didn't need correction.
Correct.

He submitted to it only as an example to us.

This is just one example of how scripture has been maligned.
You are maligning scripture, but so far it looks like accidentally as you seek to plug these verses in, but incorrectly.
 
I just posted 669-675 while you were posting. They answer you.
You posted a mixture of truth and error, which amounts to heresy. We can discuss them one at a time where all scripture agrees.
In the meantime....If the ungodly go into second death because their sins are being punished under the wrath of God for their sins, Who takes the wrath and punishment for the sins of the elect? Are you suggesting they are not punished?
I'm not suggesting anything. The Bible plainly says it,
For thou, Lord, art good, and ready to forgive; and plenteous in mercy unto all them that call upon thee. Psa.86:5

How would God be the JUST AND THE JUSTIFIER. He punishes all sin.
Being justified freely by his grace through the redemption that is in Christ Jesus:
Rom.3:24

His grace is seen by how he endured terrible abuse without without deciding to bash their stupid heads in instead.

Whom God hath set forth to be a propitiation through faith in his blood, to declare his righteousness for the remission of sins that are past, through the forbearance of God; Rom.3:25

To declare he turned his wrath away from people worthy of death. His forbearance is for repentance, not substitution.

To declare, I say, at this time his righteousness: that he might be just, and the justifier of him which believeth in Jesus. Rom.3:26

He justifies people who understand God has every right to condemn the ungodly, but will forgive anyone who repents.
 

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