GodsGrace
CF Ambassador
- Dec 26, 2015
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- 11,949
Universalism wouldn't represent a just God.I doesn't matter what I say. It's what scripture says.
Heck, I vote for universalism...but it's what scripture says.
According to scripture: "What must one do to be saved if they have not heard of Christ"?
If there's an answer we agree it is by faith so I can rephrase the question:
According to scripture: "What must one BELIEVE to be saved if they have not heard of Christ"?
I think I've said this many times but you're not picking it up.
I'll list what I BELIEVE scripture states: (I've posted all verses that support the following)
1. God has always revealed Himself to man - one way or another.
2. Man has the ability to seek God.
3. Man can respond to God, thus he is responsible for his response and has no excuse if he ends up in hell.
4. Man is always saved by faith.
5. Man must live a life accordingly.
So how does this look like in real life:
Man looks around him and sees that something must have created everything.
He feels this in his "heart" and understands with his conscious that he must worship this being.
He does so...exhibiting faith in this being and a solid response by obeying Him because what is right has always been known by our conscience.
That's the best I can do.
Not everyone will agree,
God, being a just God, will judge by the light that is given to each person....
after all it's GOD that gives to that person the light he has received.
Agreed... I would say DEEDS (works) are a result of faith (of trusting God) and we are rewarded.
Agreed.
Noah was saved by faith. What I was pointing that we don't know the content of His faith. For all I know God told Noah the God has blue toes and Noah believed Him and it was counted as righteousness.
Because the knowledge to the contents of faith of O.T. saints is difficult to ascertain I try to avoid it.
What do you mean by THE CONTENT OF FAITH?
It's not knowledge that is going to save us.
It's our faith --
Noah was saved because he BELIEVED God, He had FAITH in what God told him.
it doesn't matter what it was....
You gave one verse....Romans 3:11True... and I pointed out that NO ONE SEEKS GOD ....so my solution is we can't seek Him ... God seeks us causing us to find Him. This explains the contradiction.
There's verse saying "we are to seek God" and verses saying "no one seeks God" ...I gave my explanation to unravel the contradiction; you are welcome to give an alternate explanation.
Doctrine cannot be built on one or two verses but on a complete idea that comes forward from scripture.
The Trinity, for example. It's IMPLIED in scripture, but it took early theologians to put it all together and get a teaching from all the different verses.
I posted tens of verses about how we're supposed to seek God.
If God tells us to seek Him, it means it can be done.
Acts 2:38 tell us that we are to REPENT and be baptized. Everyone of you (that were present).
If Peter said to repent, it means Jesus taught him that it's possible to repent.
In Matthew 3:17 JESUS tells us to repent.
Surely this means that we are able to repent...otherwise why would God tell us to do something He knows we cannot do?
Didn't fall on death ears. I responding with NO ONE SEEKS GOD, explained the contradiction and invited you to do so which you have not done.
I've done it FF.
You just don't like my answer.
This sort of statement gets us no where
Same back at you. There, it's a tie.
Here's what you're responding to:
You bring your theology to the bible,
You're supposed to GET your theology FROM the bible.
I read the bible before I had any teaching.
As far as I'm concerned, it's impossible to come away from reading the NT, on our own,
with the belief system you hold to.
But let's not derail.
Hmmm .... you may be right .... goggled it ... "Luke 16:19-31 has been the focus of much controversy. Some take the story of the rich man and Lazarus to be a true, historical account of events that actually occurred; others consider it a parable or allegory."
...anyways
Jesus never used names in parables.
Hades does exist.
I'm happy you looked it up.
I'm still learning and I've been at this for over 40 years.
I answered number 2 above. You keep asking the same question to which I've replied a few times now.Phew ... at least we agree we are on topic. Romans 1 and whether it gives everyone the opportunity to be saved.
Again I ask you where the Romans 1 does it
- mention salvation or any term associated with it like "eternal life', "born again", "regenerated", "in Christ", whatever?
- what must people who never heard of Christ believe to be saved? (saying the must "accept God" needs clarity...how does one "accept God" has found in these verses for salvation?)
As to number 1....what difference does it make if we use the correct terminology?
First of all terminology is not known by everyone and they still could be saved.
secondly, we're talking about persons that have never heard the gospel so they don't know the terminology.
Paul and the other writers speak about being born again but don't necessarily use the above terms.
It's FAITH that saves.
Romans 1:17 speaks of the gospel. Nowhere does it have any of your words up above.