teddy trueblood
Member
- Jul 10, 2011
- 293
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Free wrote:
Ted:
And considering John 1 (for future reference), do you agree with the following theologians concerning theos/elohim (a god/gods)?
…. [excerpt below]:
The New Brown-Driver-Briggs-Gesenius Hebrew-English Lexicon, 1979, Hendrickson, p. 43:
Elohim: “a. rulers, judges, either as divine representatives at sacred places or as reflecting divine majesty and power.... b. divine ones, superhuman beings including God and angels.... c. angels Ps. 97:7...â€
The New International Dictionary of New Testament Theology
, Zondervan, 1986, tells us:
“The reason why judges are called ‘gods’ in Ps. 82 is that they have the office of administering God’s judgment as ‘sons of the Most High’. In context of the Ps. the men in question have failed to do this.... On the other hand, Jesus fulfilled the role of a true judge as a ‘god’ and ‘son of the Most High’.†- Vol. 3, p. 187.
The International Standard Bible Encyclopaedia
explains that elohim [‘god, gods’] is, of course, applied to God. But it is also applied “to those who represent the Deity (Jgs 5 8; Ps 82 1) ...†- p.
1265, Vol. 2, Eerdmans, 1984 printing.
[and much more] ….
………………………………..
I do respect your acceptance of these many theologians’ explanation of “god†and “gods†being used for representatives of God.
However, what about my first, emphasized question above concerning your definition versus that of many respected theologians which has been shown to you several times now?
“Unless you have been formally trained in Greek, your understanding of it is useless and will not be accepted if you do not consult theologians.â€
Ted:
Does that apply to your definition for en (‘in’)
and hn (‘was’) which theologians define differently (Q&A Forum - ‘Can
3 Persons Be One God?’)?
And considering John 1 (for future reference), do you agree with the following theologians concerning theos/elohim (a god/gods)?
…. [excerpt below]:
The New Brown-Driver-Briggs-Gesenius Hebrew-English Lexicon, 1979, Hendrickson, p. 43:
Elohim: “a. rulers, judges, either as divine representatives at sacred places or as reflecting divine majesty and power.... b. divine ones, superhuman beings including God and angels.... c. angels Ps. 97:7...â€
The New International Dictionary of New Testament Theology
, Zondervan, 1986, tells us:
“The reason why judges are called ‘gods’ in Ps. 82 is that they have the office of administering God’s judgment as ‘sons of the Most High’. In context of the Ps. the men in question have failed to do this.... On the other hand, Jesus fulfilled the role of a true judge as a ‘god’ and ‘son of the Most High’.†- Vol. 3, p. 187.
The International Standard Bible Encyclopaedia
explains that elohim [‘god, gods’] is, of course, applied to God. But it is also applied “to those who represent the Deity (Jgs 5 8; Ps 82 1) ...†- p.
1265, Vol. 2, Eerdmans, 1984 printing.
[and much more] ….
………………………………..
I do respect your acceptance of these many theologians’ explanation of “god†and “gods†being used for representatives of God.
However, what about my first, emphasized question above concerning your definition versus that of many respected theologians which has been shown to you several times now?