Sister
CF Ambassador
- May 29, 2021
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Sister & hawkman
If the disciples were saved before Pentecost, then what happened in Matthew 10:1-20 when this temporary indwelling was given even to Judas Iscariot whom was not even a believer but a traitor per John 6:63-71? Regardless, Jesus had explained when and how the born again of the Spirit was to occur after His ascension which was after His crucifixion for ALL those who believe in Him ( John 3:7-16 ), then that has to include His disciples too as He said so to His disciples as the forever indwelling holy Ghost would be given to them from the Father when Jesus was no longer present with them but had gone to the Father above in John 14:1-3 John 14:16-17 & John 14:25-26.
Since no one can tell when one is born again of the Spirit, how did Luke know and why had he written that they never had the Holy Spirit but they were just water baptized in His name unless they never had that born again of the Spirit moment?
Wouldn't this just prove there is an infilling of Holy Spirit other then just for salvation, but for power and authority? Why would Jesus tell the disciples to be filled with the Spirit right before the ascension and Day of Pentecost? Wasn't it a matter of days before Pentecost in John 20:20-23? He breathed on them and told them to receive the Holy Spirit. So when were the disciples saved? Remember this is after Judas had committed suicide.