I was in private when I first spoke in tongues.
Thanks for sharing.
Have you ever questioned what that tongue is doing when there is no interpretation?
Or did you have to assume what that tongue was doing like.. self edifying or supposedly the Spirit is uttering His prayers to God?
I am still seeking what to say about the title of the thread.
It is a testimony that I believe every believer can share about our salvation in how we come to & believed in Jesus Christ to be filled to hunger & thirst no more.
Right now I am getting a lesson from sewing machines, vs knitting. Seems Jesus had a seamless garment and not a piece sewn to piece garment. We are called to unity of thought.
Here is a passage that lays out the order / rules for tongues.
Where tongues start
26. How is it then, brethren? when ye come together, every one of you hath a psalm, hath a doctrine, hath a tongue, hath a revelation, hath an interpretation. Let all things be done unto edifying.
Rules for speaking in tongues
27. If any man speak in an unknowntongue, let it be by two, or at the most by three, and that by course; and let one interpret.
Then go private if no one intreptrets
28. But if there be no interpreter, let him keep silence in the church; and let him speak to himself, and to God.
Now per your reference when two or three speak in tongues and another interpret, how is it that you interpreted that silence to mean privately when you have two or three speaking in tongues for another to interpret? Isn't that like distracting in church, especially for those around that person speaking in tongues in private to hear the two or three speak in tongues for another to interpret?
Reread your reference again in how in verse 27 it starts out by the singular man speaking in tongues and then another or two afterwards for another to interpret. Or if you deem that they all speak in tongues at one time for that poor guy to interpret out of that small group, why would anyone think it would be kay for those to use tongues in private when no interpretation? Remember this verse?
23 If therefore the whole church be come together into one place, and all speak with tongues, and there come in those that are unlearned, or unbelievers, will they not say that ye are mad?
So if you really apply that verse 28 as allowing tongues for private use in that church service, and thus more people that use tongues for private use are doing it "quietly", how can anyone around them here the main event of the 2 or 3 speaking in tongues for when another interprets? And how would anyone coming in seeing all those members in the pews using tongues for private use as not mad per verse 23?
So I believe the way Paul is writing is not meaning how we would understand his words today for how can Paul command someone to be silent in the church when there is no interpretation? If the Holy Spirit is really speaking, then maybe some visiting foreigner is understanding what is being said without interpretation? Plus at the end of the chapter, Paul just said do not forbid to speak in tongues? Seems a contradiction to verse 28.
Sometimes I wonder if Peter was not referring to this chapter regarding Paul's writings as sometime hard to be understood.
2 Peter 3:15 And account that the longsuffering of our Lord is salvation; even as our beloved brother Paul also according to the wisdom given unto him hath written unto you; 16 As also in all his epistles, speaking in them of these things; in which are some things hard to be understood, which they that are unlearned and unstable wrest, as they do also the other scriptures, unto their own destruction.
But Paul wanted decency and order. So we can know how tongues were done by reading how prophesy was done.
31 For ye may all prophesy one by one, that all may learn, and all may be comforted.
40 Let all things be done decently and in order.
So the speaking in tongues of the 2 or 3 had to be done one by one separately and then interpreted by another. That means the ones you perceived as speaking in tongues privately and somehow quietly, were not really speaking at all for that would distract those around them and make it hard to hear the orderly practice if more did the same. So why would the orderly practice be ignored in the pews? It would not.
So verse 28 has to mean something different. The clue may very well be at the ed of that verse for why he was to be commanded to be silent as in not speaking at all.
28 But if there be no interpreter, let him keep silence in the church; and
let him speak to himself, and to God.
Are tongue speakers speaking to themselves? No. If we say that today that would be like saying he talks to himself, and so that cannot be what Paul is really saying as he also talks to God.
I believe because of the orderly practice of one by one of the 2 or 3 speaking in tongues and another interpret, a visiting foreigner may be in the assembly and stood up "out of turn" asking something or saying something in his native foreign tongue for why there is no interpretation coming. That is why Paul said that in verse 28 to command him to be silent because he understood what he was saying as God does too for he was not speaking in God's gift of tongues for why there is no interpretation, but speaking in his native foreign tongue as he understood it as God does too for why he was made to be silent.
Otherwise Paul would be contradictory in not forbidding anyone to speak in tongue. I mean really. Why would Paul be telling the Holy Spirit to be quiet just because no interpretation came yet? He wouldn't even dare.
So verse 28 was Paul explaining why that person was to be silent because he was just a foreign visitor speaking out of turn and not by the manifestation of the Holy Spirit for why there is no interpretation.
Hence tongues are not for private use as it will come with interpretation in the assembly. If Paul stress decency and order; then he did so as led by the Holy Spirit to write & instruct.
So one can read verse 2 as I did for verse 28 as this;
1 Corinthians 14:1Follow after charity, and desire spiritual gifts, but rather that ye may prophesy.
2 For he that speaketh in an unknown tongue speaketh not unto men, but unto God: for no man understandeth him; howbeit in the spirit he speaketh mysteries. 3 But he that prophesieth speaketh unto men to edification, and exhortation, and comfort.
Are there mysteries to God? No. So this is being heard by men, but it is to men that do not understand that language because what that tongue speaker is saying is coming across as a mystery to them. God understands the tongue as the Holy Spirit is manifesting that tongue, but the men and the tongue speaker does not.
If you apply verse 2 in context, Paul is exhorting the gift of prophesy over ALL spiritual gifts and began to show why by comparing tongues in verse 2 against prophesy in verse 3 in the hopes of conveying that tongues is not a stand alone gift because it needs interpretation for edification for why prophesy is better because it can stand alone for immediate edification.
Course if believers had read 1 Corinthians 12:19-21, they would know that they are not reading verse 2 right as if Paul is saying the opposite.
1 Corinthians 12:19 And if they were all one member, where were the body? 20 But now are they many members, yet but one body. 21 And the eye cannot say unto the hand, I have no need of thee: nor again the head to the feet, I have no need of you.
So that is why tongues was never for private use, but believers wanting that extra phenomenon apart from salvation that brought that tongue to be of God for why because it comes with no interpretation, they assume it is for private use when it is not because that extra phenomenon and that tongue of gibberish nonsense was not of Him at all.
Only the Lord can help you see the truth in His words as He has helped me to see this because that application lines everything up in truth about tongues even as Paul gave the bottom line about the real God's gift of tongues was for speaking unto the people.
1 Corinthians 14:20 Brethren, be not children in understanding: howbeit in malice be ye children, but in understanding be men. 21 In the law it is written, With men of other tongues and other lips will I speak unto this people; and yet for all that will they not hear me, saith the Lord. 22 Wherefore tongues are for a sign, not to them that believe, but to them that believe not: but prophesying serveth not for them that believe not, but for them which believe.
So what does that extra phenomenon do? It mislead other believers that they can receive the holy Spirit again and when they receive that tongue, it serves as a sign to believers that they had received that other baptism with the Holy Ghost, and yet 1 Corinthians 14:22 says no, because tongues only serve as a sign to unbelievers.