Angels are Corporeal, not spirits

[LeviR]

Enoch was in the line of Seth.
Like Enoch, the sons of God walked in the way of the Lord as was pleasing to Him.
The men who had daughters who attracted the sons of God were walking out of the way of the Lord.

When the sons of God go whoring after those walking out of the way, all hell breaks loose, like a flood upon the earth.

I speak from experience.

 

[Free]

One rule of thumb in bible interpretation is the "first mention" rule, whenever a term or phrase appears the first time, the same definition, connotation and implication thereof apply to all the subsequent mentions in the rest of the bible. "Sons of God" in Gen 6:3 literally means "godly or heavenly beings". "Son" should not be understood as biological male offspring, but rather the embodiment of a concept, such as "sons of chaos", "sons of thunder", "sons of the republic". Jesus frequently addressed himself as the "son of man", the emphasis was on his humanity, that even though he is the unique son of God, he manifested himself in form of a man, a humble carpenter from Nazerath. So whether you think these sons of God are angels or not, they are most definitely not mortal men. The whole purpose of using the term "sons of God" is to distinguish them from mortal men.

Or, the whole purpose is to distinguish between a godly line of people and an ungodly one. It seems to foreshadow what happens during the conquest of Canaan. Jesus uses "sons of God" of humans:

Mat 5:9 “Blessed are the peacemakers, for they shall be called sons of God.

Luk 20:36 for they cannot die anymore, because they are equal to angels and are sons of God, being sons of the resurrection.

Luke says that Adam was "the son of God":

Luk 3:38 the son of Enos, the son of Seth, the son of Adam, the son of God.

Couldn't there be a godly line there, such as that of Seth?

Jesus also uses "gods" of humans:

Joh 10:34 Jesus answered them, “Is it not written in your Law, ‘I said, you are gods’?
Joh 10:35 If he called them gods to whom the word of God came—and Scripture cannot be broken—

That comes from Psalm 82:1. Those are humans who are God's representatives, his judges that judge the people.

(All ESV.)

Also, you said, '"Sons of God" in Gen 6:3 literally means "godly or heavenly beings"." So, even according to that statement alone you cannot claim "they are most definitely not mortal men." If it can mean a "godly being," then it can mean a "godly human." As I have given above, there is reasonable to believe that that is the case.

Further, you are giving angels the ability to create for themselves, out of nothing, not only the appropriate male anatomy, but also compatible DNA by which they could procreate. That is going way beyond any biblical text and is purely speculation. We should stick with Scripture.

 

[LeviR]

Or, the whole purpose is to distinguish between a godly line of people and an ungodly one. It seems to foreshadow what happens during the conquest of Canaan. Jesus uses "sons of God" of humans:

Mat 5:9 “Blessed are the peacemakers, for they shall be called sons of God.

Luk 20:36 for they cannot die anymore, because they are equal to angels and are sons of God, being sons of the resurrection.

Luke says that Adam was "the son of God":

Luk 3:38 the son of Enos, the son of Seth, the son of Adam, the son of God.

Couldn't there be a godly line there, such as that of Seth?

Jesus also uses "gods" of humans:

Joh 10:34 Jesus answered them, “Is it not written in your Law, ‘I said, you are gods’?
Joh 10:35 If he called them gods to whom the word of God came—and Scripture cannot be broken—

That comes from Psalm 82:1. Those are humans who are God's representatives, his judges that judge the people.

(All ESV.)

Also, you said, '"Sons of God" in Gen 6:3 literally means "godly or heavenly beings"." So, even according to that statement alone you cannot claim "they are most definitely not mortal men." If it can mean a "godly being," then it can mean a "godly human." As I have given above, there is reasonable to believe that that is the case.

Further, you are giving angels the ability to create for themselves, out of nothing, not only the appropriate male anatomy, but also compatible DNA by which they could procreate. That is going way beyond any biblical text and is purely speculation. We should stick with Scripture.

Luk 20:36 for they cannot die anymore, because they are equal to angels and are sons of God, being sons of the resurrection.

The reason Jude refers to the sons of God as “angels” and Peter calls them “spirits” may be by the fact that sons of God in the resurrection are equal to angels, who are also called spirits. And angels are also called men.

Suppose that the sons of Seth were the sons of God because they were walking in the way of the Lord.
And when they decided to go after the daughters of the men who were walking out of the Way, God was not pleased. He decided to destroy them all.

These sons of God are said to be locked up in chains of darkness until judgment day. At which point they will be raised from their watery grave.

Now, suppose not all of the sons of God involved themselves in the whoredom of the others.
They might be raised equal to the spirit angels who never die. IOW, some will be saved.
And that may be why they are called angels and spirits.

Luk 20:36 for they cannot die anymore, because they are equal to angels and are sons of God, being sons of the resurrection.

 

[Carry_Your_Name]

Or, the whole purpose is to distinguish between a godly line of people and an ungodly one. It seems to foreshadow what happens during the conquest of Canaan. Jesus uses "sons of God" of humans:

Mat 5:9 “Blessed are the peacemakers, for they shall be called sons of God.

Luk 20:36 for they cannot die anymore, because they are equal to angels and are sons of God, being sons of the resurrection.

Luke says that Adam was "the son of God":

Luk 3:38 the son of Enos, the son of Seth, the son of Adam, the son of God.

Couldn't there be a godly line there, such as that of Seth?

Jesus also uses "gods" of humans:

Joh 10:34 Jesus answered them, “Is it not written in your Law, ‘I said, you are gods’?
Joh 10:35 If he called them gods to whom the word of God came—and Scripture cannot be broken—

That comes from Psalm 82:1. Those are humans who are God's representatives, his judges that judge the people.

(All ESV.)

Also, you said, '"Sons of God" in Gen 6:3 literally means "godly or heavenly beings"." So, even according to that statement alone you cannot claim "they are most definitely not mortal men." If it can mean a "godly being," then it can mean a "godly human." As I have given above, there is reasonable to believe that that is the case.

Further, you are giving angels the ability to create for themselves, out of nothing, not only the appropriate male anatomy, but also compatible DNA by which they could procreate. That is going way beyond any biblical text and is purely speculation. We should stick with Scripture.

If you stick with Scripture, you would've realized that normal human beings cannot procreate ten feet tall giants, abominations like the sons of Anak and Goliath of Philistine didn't natually occur. There could be no such "godly line of seth" because by the time of Noah, men were full of wickedness that had even grieved God, they were so wicked that they had to be cleansed with the Flood, how could they be the sons of God?

Then the Lord saw that the wickedness of man was great in the earth, and that every intent of the thoughts of his heart was only evil continually. And the Lord was sorry that He had made man on the earth, and He was grieved in His heart. (Gen. 6:5-6)

 

[Carry_Your_Name]

Go back and read my post #81 as this is my understanding of scripture of how it is written. I'm not a bandwagon Christian.

Neither am I. Was Jesus not called son of God AND son of man? Those refer to his dual nature, every born again ture believer is endowed with the same dual nature. When they die, they cease to live as sons of man; when Jesus returns, they rise from the grave as sons of God. This doesn't exist in the OT. You use OT to interpret the NT, not the other way around.

 

[Carry_Your_Name]

Or, the whole purpose is to distinguish between a godly line of people and an ungodly one. It seems to foreshadow what happens during the conquest of Canaan. Jesus uses "sons of God" of humans:

Also, the idea of "godly line" and "ungodly line" is racist and unbiblical. There's a messianic line from Adam to Jesus, but there's no "godly line" that distinguishes one group of people from all the rest. Salvation can NOT be inherited from ancestors, each individual must make their own conscious decision on whether to accept or reject Jesus as their Lord and Savior.

 

[Free]

If you stick with Scripture, you would've realized that normal human beings cannot procreate ten feet tall giants, abominations like the sons of Anak and Goliath of Philistine didn't natually occur.

This is fallaciously begging the question. First, what do you mean by “normal humans”? Modern humans? Second, do normal human beings live to be hundreds of years old?

Third, the tallest recorded human was a man who was 8’ 11”, which is pretty close to 10’. Fourth, isn’t it possible that because people lived so long that they grew for a longer period of time?

Fifth:

Gen 6:4 The Nephilim were on the earth in those days, and also afterward, when the sons of God came in to the daughters of man and they bore children to them. These were the mighty men who were of old, the men of renown. (ESV)

The text allows for and makes sense of the Nephilim having already been around “when the sons of God came in to the daughters of man.” The Nephilim weren’t the offspring, they were one of the already existing people groups.

There could be no such "godly line of seth" because by the time of Noah, men were full of wickedness that had even grieved God, they were so wicked that they had to be cleansed with the Flood, how could they be the sons of God?

Really? And God didn’t save a single person? Who do you think Noah was? Besides, you’re begging the question again by assuming that sons of God doesn’t refer to humans and so therefore ‘There could be no such “godly line of Seth”.’

Perhaps you should look up Noah’s lineage which is in the preceding chapter, for a reason. It’s worth reading 5:3 and 5:22, 24. Then we get to 6:1, “When man began to multiply on the face of the land.”

Then, given what Jesus says about angels (Matt. 22:30; Luke 20:34-36), it seems highly unlikely that angels have the ability to procreate. So, you still have the issue of angels supposedly being able to create their own male plumbing complete with compatible DNA able to procreate with human women.

Your position is highly unlikely.

 

[Free]

Also, the idea of "godly line" and "ungodly line" is racist and unbiblical.

Lol! No. Why are you so keen to always being up progressive ideology? It has absolutely notiing to do with racism, given that both lines were from the same parents. It’s about those who followed God and those who didn’t. You really need to read the chapters prior to 6 to get the context right.

There's a messianic line from Adam to Jesus, but there's no "godly line" that distinguishes one group of people from all the rest. Salvation can NOT be inherited from ancestors,

And that isn’t the argument I am making. Read Genesis 4 and 5 prior to 6, paying attention to the lineages and what they reveal.

 

[Carry_Your_Name]

This is fallaciously begging the question. First, what do you mean by “normal humans”?

I mean what the Scripture means - mortal men, as opposed to "heavenly hosts."

The text allows for and makes sense of the Nephilim having already been around “when the sons of God came in to the daughters of man.” The Nephilim weren’t the offspring, they were one of the already existing people groups.

No, you fail to understand basic grammar of English language. The contents following "WHEN" sets the timing and/or condition of a sentence, in this case, WHEN the sons of God came into the daughters of man is the timing and condition for the Nephilim to come into being. The sequence of events in Gen 6 is: mankind multiplied, women attracted "sons of men", and that grieved the Lord. How so? Because WHEN the sons of men took wives and sired children, referring to the event in 6:2, those giants popped out, and that's the wickedness which God disapproved. There's no other kind of wickedness mentioned in this specific context except the giants, which were proven to be demonic beings in latter books of the bible. The intermarriage took place FIRST before the giants showed up

Really? And God didn’t save a single person? Who do you think Noah was? Besides, you’re begging the question again by assuming that sons of God doesn’t refer to humans and so therefore ‘There could be no such “godly line of Seth”.’

Perhaps you should look up Noah’s lineage which is in the preceding chapter, for a reason. It’s worth reading 5:3 and 5:22, 24. Then we get to 6:1, “When man began to multiply on the face of the land.”

Then, given what Jesus says about angels (Matt. 22:30; Luke 20:34-36), it seems highly unlikely that angels have the ability to procreate. So, you still have the issue of angels supposedly being able to create their own male plumbing complete with compatible DNA able to procreate with human women.

Aren't you begging the question by assuming that sons of God are mortal men? And anything else is all justification for that preconceived conclusion? You're the one who should take a closer look at the text in Matt. 22:30 and Luke 20:34-36 - there'll be no procreation in RESURRECTION, that's the context which you totally ignored. Was anybody in Noah's days in resurrection? Also, throughout the entire bible, all angels appeared in form of men, in the Sodom episode the wicked men from the city demanded to lay with God's two angels - who appeared to Abraham as MEN, previously in Gen. 18:2, so how do you know they weren't able to procreate on earth in their human form?

And they called to Lot and said to him, “Where are the men who came to you tonight? Bring them out to us that we may know them carnally.” (Gen. 19:5)

 

[hawkman]

Thousands of years ago when "sons of God" was read the original readers would have no problem understanding who the sons of God were . So here we are without much reference other than other examples of sons of God in the Bible for our clues . I would think our best reference will be the Old Testament otherwise we are many , many years away from the Genesis and Job texts . Language and references change over centuries let alone decades .
The only thing I can conclude is that sons of God in Genesis and Job refer to angels . Here are the Job verses .
Now there was a day when the sons of God came to present themselves before the LORD, and Satan came also among them.
Again there was a day when the sons of God came to present themselves before the LORD, and Satan came also among them to present himself before the LORD.
When the morning stars sang together, and all the sons of God shouted for joy?
And here are the verses in Genesis 6 .

Genesis 6:2 Context​

1And it came to pass, when men began to multiply on the face of the earth, and daughters were born unto them, 2That the sons of God saw the daughters of men that they were fair; and they took them wives of all which they chose. 3And the LORD said, My spirit shall not always strive with man, for that he also is flesh: yet his days shall be an hundred and twenty years. 4There were giants in the earth in those days; and also after that, when the sons of God came in unto the daughters of men, and they bare children to them, the same became mighty men which were of old, men of renown. 5And GOD saw that the wickedness of man was great in the earth, and that every imagination of the thoughts of his heart was only evil continually.

Do you notice the sons of God are the fathers of mighty men , men of renown . How did fallen angels , angels that left their first estate as Jude said , procreate with daughters of men ? I don't need to know I just know they did according to what we are told .
The giants had a purpose and when the Israelites arrived to the promised land it was infested with giants , what a coincidence that is ! Satan knew where the promised land was and he wanted the Israelites to stay out .

 

[Carry_Your_Name]

Lol! No. Why are you so keen to always being up progressive ideology? It has absolutely notiing to do with racism, given that both lines were from the same parents. It’s about those who followed God and those who didn’t. You really need to read the chapters prior to 6 to get the context right.

You're begging the question by assuming that "sons of God" are godly, "daughters of man" are ungodly, whereas the Scripture shows the opposite - sons of God were being judged by God in Ps. 82:1-6, and they were satanic, as they presented themselves before God with Satan. (Job 1:6)

And that isn’t the argument I am making. Read Genesis 4 and 5 prior to 6, paying attention to the lineages and what they reveal.

All that is revealed is Noah's genealogy. I know what you're gonna say: "men began to call on the name of the Lord." But that's exactly the argument I'm making - just because men called on the name of the Lord in Enosh's generation doesn't mean they continued to do so in Noah's generation because "calling on the name of the Lord" is not a hereditary trait.

 

[Carry_Your_Name]

How did fallen angels , angels that left their first estate as Jude said , procreate with daughters of men ?

Fallen angels don't and can't procreate as angels, but they did and can procreate as MEN.

Then the Lord appeared to him by the terebinth trees of Mamre, as he was sitting in the tent door in the heat of the day. So he lifted his eyes and looked, and behold, three men were standing by him; and when he saw them, he ran from the tent door to meet them, and bowed himself to the ground ... (Gen. 18:1-2)

Then the men turned away from there and went toward Sodom, but Abraham still stood before the Lord. (Gen. 1:22)

Now the two angels came to Sodom in the evening, and Lot was sitting in the gate of Sodom. (Gen. 19:1)