Sure are. Paul says that sin is the result of struggles with the flesh within the believer, using himself as an example.
Romans 7:14-25 is Paul using the literary tactic of IDENTIFICATION to define carnality in order to win the carnal believer to Christ. He becomes as the weak in order to gain the weak (1 Corinthians 9:22).
As evidence by the fact that he says he is carnal in verse 14; and yet if he were truly carnal, he would not have been penning holy scripture (see 2 Peter 1:21).
Also, in Romans 7:23, Paul says that he is held captive by the power of sin; yet in Romans 6:6-7, he tells us that he is set free from sin.
How do you explain this apparent contradiction?
I explain it by the knowledge that Paul's true state is that he is set free from sin and that he is using a literary tactic in Romans 7:14-25.
John says that a believer who claims to be without sin is self-deceived, doesn't have the truth, makes God a liar, and doesn't have God's word in themself.
This can be explained in two ways.
1) If we say that we "
have no sin" (not "do no sin") we deceive ourselves and the truth is not in us. It is speaking of indwelling sin and not practical sinning. For the element of sin, dwelling in the flesh, can be rendered dead (Romans 6:6, Galatians 5:24, Romans 7:8) so that it no longer has any authority over our behaviour (Romans 6:14, Romans 8:12 (kjv, nlt)). In this scenario it is true that we are not obligated to the flesh, to sin; and that we can walk in freedom and victory for an extended period of time; even for the rest of our lives (Luke 1:74-75).
2) 1 John 1:8 is speaking of "
if we say that we have no sin" in the same sense that it says that Jesus was tempted in all points yet without sin, in Hebrews 4:15. In this scenario, 1 John 1:10 is a perfect reiteration of 1 John 1:8. And what substantiates this is Colossians 2:11 (especially in the nlt); as well as the concept in 1 John 3:5 that there is no sin
in Christ and the concept in 1 John 5:20 and elsewhere that those who believe are
in Christ. Here, it is possible to assert that I have no indwelling sin and yet not be deceiving myself; all that is necessary for me to not be deceiving myself is to acknowledge that I have sinned at some juncture in the past. And in this scenario, it is not saying that we must necessarily commit sin in the present or the future. In fact, if it were saying that, it would be contradicting 1 John 3:4-9; and we know that the scriptures do not contradict each other.
That means that believers sin; that it is impossible that they don't sin.
See above.
No, it doesn't. It does say that they cannot live a life that is characterized by sin.
The kjv Bible does in fact say that the one who is born of God "
cannot sin".
I suppose that you are here contending that the kjv is not the Holy Bible.
You had better have evidence to support your assertion.
Post that one more time and you will be banned from the thread for violating the ToS.
You're going to threaten me now? how Christ-like!
How is my statement a violation of the ToS? What # in the ToS is it in violation of?
Nevertheless, I don't have to ever say it again. I have said it; and it will have the impact that the Lord wants it to have. The word of the Lord will not return void.
I said it in love (see Galatians 5:22-23 and Psalms 94:20).