atpollard
Member
the above does NOT answer my question about the LAST TWO PARAGRAPHS being exactly the same in concept,,,only the WORDING is different.
Paragraph 1 said:
This is equivalent to the fact that Joseph’s brothers selling him into slavery in Egypt was also always part of God’s plan. In both cases, God KNEW before it happened that the sin would take place, God certainly could have prevented the sin from taking place, and in both the case of Adam and Joseph, God had not merely allowed the sin to take place, but God chose to use the sin and its consequences as clay in the hands of a potter to shape something far greater. Joseph saved millions of lives and gave us the imagery of the Passover as a foreshadow so we could understand the incarnation of God Himself when it came centuries later. God could have placed the tree out of Adam’s reach, but God chose instead to demonstrate His unimaginable love and start a work in motion that transforms “created creatures” into beloved children of God.If you are asking me ... “Was the fact that Adam and Eve were going to eat the fruit always part of God’s plan for mankind, or was the death of Jesus a ‘divine plan B’ needed to clean up Adam and Eve derailing God’s ‘plan A’ ”, then I would say YES, a Sovereign God works out everything according to the good pleasure of His will. Which is just a fancy way of saying that God always gets His PLAN A.
Paragraph 2 said:
While God allowed Joseph’s brothers to commit the sin of selling Joseph into slavery, God did not place that hatred of Joseph in their heart and compel them to do evil. In exactly the same way, God allowed Adam to be tempted and God used Adam’s failure as the catalyst for the far greater glory of the Incarnation, Crucifixion, resurrection and Pentecost. However, God did not place the evil thoughts into Adam, nor did God force Adam to sin.On the other hand, if you are asking me if God FORCED Adam and Eve to eat that fruit, if God is responsible for creating the evil desires within Adam and Eve and if God is really the one responsible for the sinful choices made by Adam and Eve, then I would answer “NO” (or as Paul would say “MAY IT NEVER BE!”) That is not “predestination”.
I did not ignore the paragraphs. The circumstances are parallel since for both Adam and Joseph, God allowed sin and God used sin for His glory, but God did not cause the sin.
That is why my answer depends on your definition of “predestine”. If you say “predestine” to mean that God caused evil actions by men, then I disagree.
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